Did Jesus return around 70 AD?

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ewq1938

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Matthew 10:23
But whenever they persecute you in this city, flee to the next; for truly I say to you, you will not finish going through the cities of Israel until the Son of Man comes.

Jesus gives direct instructions to his twelve disciples for their mission trip in Judea/Galilee, stating that his coming would occur before they could even complete preaching to every city in Israel.

Clearly not a second coming reference. They were all murdered except John and he was a prisoner. None of them lived to see the second coming which includes the rapture and changing of the human body to immortal. None of them experienced that so the second coming did not happen in their lifetimes, nor has it happened yet.
 
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TribulationSigns

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Not only him but other Amils on this board as well. But not meaning you in this case.

Ahhh, those amillennialists with a seasoning of preterism. Yep!


Plus numerous Premils as well

Yep!

, even if they do correctly place verses 15-26 in the future, but then take everything in the literal sense pertaining to those verses rather than in a spiritual sense.

And through verse 29. Yep!
 

sondring7

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Clearly not a second coming reference. They were all murdered except John and he was a prisoner. None of them lived to see the second coming which includes the rapture and changing of the human body to immortal. None of them experienced that so the second coming did not happen in their lifetimes, nor has it happened yet.
You see ewq, though we disagree elsewhere, I'm the sort that 'likes' when when the obvious is correctly stated.
 
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Truth7t7

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The same angel in Daniel 12:7. The name of that angel is not given.
I Also believe the Angel mentioned In Revelation 10:5-7 is Michael

Revelation 10:5-7KJV
5 And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven,
6 And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer:
7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
 
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Marty fox

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ALL of those passages were written more than 20 years AFTER the fall of the temple in 70 A.D.
Therefore, your entire post is false.
You don’t know when revelation was written because it’s not recorded, many believe it was in the mid 90‘s and many believe it was in the mid 60’s of the first century
 
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SeekTruth

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That is easily explained since certain cloud formations have been proven to reflect images unseen from many miles past the horizon.
It was NOT the return of Christ and His armies since Jesus Himself said EVERY eye will see Him; but there is no record of this event in China or Japan, who are known to keep meticulous records; especially of heavenly apparition.
Therefore, it was NOT Christ but instead was possibly an unusual but common weather event.
You are serious?
 

claninja

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1. The Grammatical Flaw: Third-Person Plural is Required by the Metaphor

The argument states Paul should have said "those of 'us' who have fallen asleep" if he meant the corporate church.
• The Hole: In Greek (and English), the phrase "those who have fallen asleep" (hoi koimēthentes) is a participle acting as a noun phrase. It is grammatically impossible for this phrase to be in the first person ("us").

I don’t understand the argument the AI is making here. Can you elaborate?

Is it arguing that it’s grammatically impossible in Greek to say “we who have fallen asleep” or “those of us who have fallen asleep”? Because that would be incorrect.

Or is it simply arguing that the phrase “those who have fallen asleep” is grammatically third person and can’t be first person? If so, no duh lol. Nobody is arguing that this phrase, as Paul wrote it, should or could be interpreted as first person.

The actual argument is that Paul contrasts the third-person reference to “those who have fallen asleep” with the first-person reference to “we who are alive and remain.”

And remember, Paul distinguishes between two groups. “Those who have fallen asleep” does not refer to the entire church, but specifically to believers who have died. Likewise, “we who are alive and remain” does not refer to the entire church, but specifically to the subset of believers who remain alive until the coming of the Lord.

Therefore, simply arguing that Paul uses “we” corporately does not resolve the issue. The question is not whether Paul is speaking about a group of believers, but which group he identifies himself with.

Paul does not use “we” to refer indiscriminately to the church throughout history. He qualifies “we” with “who are alive and remain,” restricting the reference to a particular subset of the church. The corporate interpretation must therefore explain why Paul identifies himself with this specific group rather than referring to them as “those who are alive and remain.” especially when he has created divisions for his argument.


2. Paul’s Regular Use of the "Corporate We"

The Preterist argues that a corporate "we" is unlikely here because of the contrast. However, Paul routinely uses "we" to describe the entire body of believers across all time, contrasting them with other groups.
• The Hole: Look at 1 Corinthians 15:51–52, a parallel passage on the resurrection. Paul writes: "We shall not all sleep, but we shall all be changed... and the dead will be raised incorruptible, and we shall be changed."
• The Contradiction: Paul died. He did not remain alive to be changed without sleeping. This proves that Paul used "we" to mean "we believers who happen to be alive at that future moment," placing himself rhetorically in the shoes of the final generation, rather than making a strict chronological prediction about his own lifespan.

Other contexts in different letters do not necessarily determine how Paul is using “we” in 1 Thessalonians. AI should know that.

Additionally, retrospect or “hindsight bias” does not disprove what Paul believed when he wrote 1 Thessalonians.

3. The "We" Shifts Elsewhere in Paul’s Letters

If "we" always strictly means Paul and his immediate 1st-century audience, then Paul contradicts himself in other letters.
• The Hole: In 2 Corinthians 4:14, Paul writes: "...knowing that He who raised up the Lord Jesus will also raise us up with Jesus, and will present us with you."
• The Reality: Here, Paul groups himself with those who will be raised from the dead, not those who remain alive. If "we" in 1 Thessalonians 4 strictly locks him into the "living until 70 AD" camp, then 2 Corinthians 4 locks him into the "dead before the resurrection" camp. The simplest explanation is that Paul used "we" flexibly to represent the Christian community as a whole.

Other contexts in different letters do not necessarily determine how Paul is using “we” in 1 Thessalonians. AI should know that.

The Preterist is manufacturing a rigid grammatical rule that doesn't exist in ancient Greek or modern English. The contrast between "we who are alive" and "those who have fallen asleep" is simply the only logical way to contrast the living and the dead. It does nothing to diminish the "corporate church" interpretation.

Here is google’s AI response to my question “in general, did Paul believe Jesus would return in his lifetime?”

“Yes, a strong consensus among historical-critical biblical scholars concludes that Paul originally believed Jesus would return during his lifetime. However, his perspective appears to have evolved as he aged and faced the immediate threat of execution.
The evidence for this shift is typically tracked chronologically through his letters:

1. The Early Letters: Expecting an Imminent Return

In his earliest correspondence, Paul consistently includes himself in the generation that will live to see the Parousia (the Second Coming).
  • 1 Thessalonians 4:15–17 (c. 50 CE): Paul writes, "We who are still alive, who are left until the coming of the Lord, will by no means precede those who have fallen asleep." His use of "we" strongly indicates he expected to be among the living.
  • 1 Corinthians 15:51–52 (c. 53–54 CE): He states, "We will not all sleep, but we will all be changed,"implying that many in his audience—and likely himself—would bypass physical death entirely.
  • 1 Corinthians 7:29: He explicitly warns that "the time has grown short," using this imminent expectation to advise believers against making long-term earthly commitments like marriage.

2. The Later Letters: Grappling with Mortality
As the years progressed, Paul was imprisoned multiple times and faced the stark reality that he might die before Christ's return. His language shifted from expecting survival to preparing for death.
  • Philippians 1:21–23 (c. 54–62 CE): Writing from prison, Paul contemplates his own execution, stating he has a "desire to depart and be with Christ," recognizing that his death may precede the final resurrection.
  • 2 Corinthians 5:1: He discusses the destruction of his "earthly tent" (his physical body), showing a developing theological framework for what happens to believers who die before the Second Coming.
Summary of Scholarly Views
While some traditional or theological interpretations argue that Paul's use of "we" was merely a rhetorical device to keep every generation of the Church alert, most historians view Paul as an apocalyptic Pharisee who quite literally believed the world was ending in the 1st century. When Jesus did not return immediately, Paul and the early Church adapted their theology to account for the deaths of the founding apostles.”
 

claninja

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The point of reading scripture is only to "hear what the Spirit says", not to be linguistics detectives and try to figure things out on our own. We do not study unto all truth, but are lead.

Which means there is no need for our own translation at all, for it is all in the hands of God, His providence alone. So then, if we are faced with a language we do not understand, it is God's doing. But does that mean it all returns void, for our lack of ability? Or is anything added, if not by God. What is written? "Professing themselves to be wise, they became fools." Oh, yes, the Bereans were complimented for their efforts, but they were the exception, and nothing was written about their actual understanding, while more is written of blinded guides, lawyers, and learned hypocrites.

As for that passage: "we who are alive and remain" vs. “those who have fallen asleep (dead)”, Paul explained--but only "here a little there a little." The one refers to those "alive", while the other those who have died. He addressed them all, saying "as in Adam all die, even so in Christ all shall be made alive. But each one in his own order" (1 Corinthians 15:22-23). And then, "the dead in Christ will rise first. Then we who are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them" (1 Thessalonians 4:16-17)

As far as how that applies to the topic "each one in his own order" means no mass future event...but simply "each one" either in life or in death--in their own time in history. Or as Christ said to the thief on the cross..."today." Which "each one in his own order"--is "that day"...any given day.

The irony. Dismiss linguistic and contextual analysis while simultaneously relying on your own interpretation of a text that was translated into English by Greek textual and linguistic experts.
 

Grailhunter

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All good. Some believe that Yeshua returned in 70 AD because most everyone in the New Testament believed that they were living in the last days, not weeks, not month, not years, not centuries. But the return spoke of in Revelation has not happened yet.
Be patient and study the Bible.
Focus on salvation first and the walk with Christ.
God Bless.
 
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Truth7t7

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Psst...@grafted branch and @Truth7t7,

It's Jesus Christ! :laughing:
I Also believe the Angel mentioned In Revelation 10:5-7 is Michael

Revelation 10:5-7KJV
5 And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven,
6 And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer:
7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
 

SeekTruth

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All good. Some believe that Yeshua returned in 70 AD because most everyone in the New Testament believed that they were living in the last days, not weeks, not month, not years, not centuries. But the return spoke of in Revelation has not happened yet.
Be patient and study the Bible.
Focus on salvation first and the walk with Christ.
God Bless.
Imho, one of the clearest passages that Jesus returned around 70 AD is Matthew 24:1-3. The whole chapter. With the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD as the fulfillment of Babylon's destruction.
 
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grafted branch

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I Also believe the Angel mentioned In Revelation 10:5-7 is Michael

Revelation 10:5-7KJV
5 And the angel which I saw stand upon the sea and upon the earth lifted up his hand to heaven,
6 And sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created heaven, and the things that therein are, and the earth, and the things that therein are, and the sea, and the things which are therein, that there should be time no longer:
7 But in the days of the voice of the seventh angel, when he shall begin to sound, the mystery of God should be finished, as he hath declared to his servants the prophets.
I think it’s a possibility and wouldn’t argue against it.

I have had some people use Jude 1:9 as an argument against Michael being Christ because in that verse Michael says “the Lord rebuke thee”. They argue that if Michael were Christ he would’ve rebuked himself and not said the Lord rebukes. I think it’s a weak argument but again I don’t argue one way or the other
 

Davidpt

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I think it’s a possibility and wouldn’t argue against it.

I have had some people use Jude 1:9 as an argument against Michael being Christ because in that verse Michael says “the Lord rebuke thee”. They argue that if Michael were Christ he would’ve rebuked himself and not said the Lord rebukes. I think it’s a weak argument but again I don’t argue one way or the other

Revelation 12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,

If Jesus is meant be Michael here, it seems to me we would need to apply the same logic to the dragon then. What person is meaning the dragon then?

Michael and his angels
dragon and his angels

Both have angels under them. This tends to tell me both Michael and the dragon are also angels. We already know Michael is.
 

grafted branch

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Revelation 12:7 And there was war in heaven: Michael and his angels fought against the dragon; and the dragon fought and his angels,

If Jesus is meant be Michael here, it seems to me we would need to apply the same logic to the dragon then. What person is meaning the dragon then?

Michael and his angels
dragon and his angels

Both have angels under them. This tends to tell me both Michael and the dragon are also angels. We already know Michael is.
From Revelation 20:2 the dragon is the Devil and Satan. Since Michael defeats the dragon, if Michael is not Christ then we would have an angel with less authority having the ability to defeat Satan.

I haven’t studied this idea but if there is a verse that shows the hierarchy of power then that could be used in an argument for Michael being Christ.
 

Grailhunter

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Imho, one of the clearest passages that Jesus returned around 70 AD is Matthew 24:1-3. The whole chapter. With the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 AD as the fulfillment of Babylon's destruction.

27 For as lightning that comes from the east is visible even in the west, so will be the coming of the Son of Man
This is the telling verse. Yeshua's return will be a very visible event.
Now the destruction of the Temple, was that the beginning of the end? That is a long end.
The Roman siege of Jerusalem was very localized. What happens in Revelation is worldwide.
And there is no agreement as to what Babylon represents specifically.
 

ScottA

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The irony. Dismiss linguistic and contextual analysis while simultaneously relying on your own interpretation of a text that was translated into English by Greek textual and linguistic experts.
The irony, is that you apparently believe those tongues translate themselves or by any man, rather than by God alone, who is not misguided by any.