A Textual Challenge to the “Mary and Joseph Had Later Relations” Position

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TiberiusMaximus

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Why does this matter so much for you? Are you under the delusion that Mary is pure as long as she does not engage in marital relationship which Joseph, and being pure you believe her to be equal with God?
It matters because it's true and part of the deposit of faith.

It has nothing to do with ideas of purity in the conventional sense you seem to be using it. Marital intimacy is a divinely ordained gift, and the Church does not teach otherwise. Mary simply had a unique role to play in salvation history (the Ark of the New Covenant, the Mother of God), and that unique role was reflected in her unusual marriage. (Though the idea of sacred celibacy was hardly foreign in the Judaism of the day, even in the context of marriage)

We do not believe Mary to be equal to God. The historic Christian teaching of the perpetual virginity has absolutely nothing to do with trying to wrongly elevate her to such a place.
 
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TiberiusMaximus

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But the present tense does not resolve the issue. Mary’s use of the idiom “I do not know man” refers to sexual relations in general, not merely Her present moment. The tense does not change the idiom’s meaning.

More importantly, the narrative logic still stands:

If Mary expected future relations with Joseph, then conception is not impossible — only not yet. In that situation the natural question would be “When?” not “How?” And since Gabriel never tells Mary when She will conceive, She would have even more reason to ask “When?” if this were simply a matter of pre‑consummation timing. Yet She does not ask “When,” but “How,” which only makes sense if She sees conception as impossible under Her expected future circumstances.

Gabriel reinforces this by describing a miraculous, non‑sexual conception and by pointing to Elizabeth’s naturally impossible conception. None of that fits a scenario where Mary expects natural conception through Joseph.

So the textual question remains:

If Mary expected normal marital relations with Joseph, why do both Mary and Gabriel speak as though conception is impossible without divine intervention.
Not only does the tense not change the idiom's meaning, it reinforces it - the present tense is not used to speak exclusively of what is true in the moment without regard for the future, but rather it is very commonly used to speak to conditions (like ongoing celibacy, continuing into the future). And here, in context, the present tense has to have that meaning, since Mary was responding to what Gabriel said woild happen at an unspecified point in the future ("you will conceive").
 
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rwb

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It matters because it's true and part of the deposit of faith.

It has nothing to do with ideas of purity in the conventional sense you seem to be using it. Marital intimacy is a divinely ordained gift, and the Church does not teach otherwise. Mary simply had a unique role to play in salvation history (the Ark of the New Covenant, the Mother of God), and that unique role was reflected in her unusual marriage. (Though the idea of sacred celibacy was hardly foreign in the Judaism of the day, even in the context of marriage)

We do not believe Mary to be equal to God. The historic Christian teaching of the perpetual virginity has absolutely nothing to do with trying to wrongly elevate her to such a place.

If Mary was pure "the Ark of the New Covenant, the mother of God) while clothed in human flesh & blood why does she, like every other human need a Savior?

If the perpetual virginity argument has nothing to do with elevating Mary why do Catholics argue so vehemently against Mary being natural flesh and blood? Do you also worship, bow down and pray to her as though she is equal with God?
 

TiberiusMaximus

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It does. If she is not sexually active- there is no normal "HOW" she would get pregnant. that is why her question is asked in honestness and Gabriel told her the how.

The angel answers the how and the when. that dhould be enough.

and as Joseph and Mary having sex?

24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:

25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name Jesus.

anyone without a predisposed bias would read that as Joseph did not have sex with Mary until after Jesus was born

This is not responsive to the text. As Moonwood has observed repeatedly, not one answer thus far actually addresses the text, in context, of the Annunciation without ignoring it, misstating it, or reading into it what is not there.

As for Matthew 1, not only is it not to the contrary of historical Christian teaching, it underscores it.

"Until" here does not say that after Jesus was born Joseph did know Mary, just as in Matthew 28:20 "until" does not say that after the end of the age Jesus will no longer be with us. It expresses what is true during the relevant period without implying the converse becomes true after that period ends.

What is remarkable about Matthew 1, however, is that it tells us Joseph did not know Mary *even after* they had become fully married (when he took her into his home), when in a conventional marriage it would be fully expected that Joseph and Mary would have consummated more or less immediately upon her moving in with him. In other words, Matthew 1 gives us yet another data point from the pages of Scripture that, when it comes to marital intimacy, Joseph and Mary's marriage was *not* conventional.
 
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TiberiusMaximus

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You say:

"And you continue being disingenuous by stating accusations that we who have answered you have NOT answered you."

But I actually tagged you earlier in a post where I explicitly said:

“So far, every response has avoided the textual question I’m actually asking. The arguments offered address questions I never raised, or reframe my point into something I did not claim.”

That is a clear acknowledgment that people have responded — but that their responses have not addressed the specific textual issue I’m raising.
You ignored that clarification and instead accused me of being “disingenuous.”
But pointing out that no one has answered the actual question is not disingenuous — it’s simply accurate.


I’ve explained to each person along the way exactly why their replies didn’t address it — including yours.
In fact, you have yet to attempt to address the challenge, because the replies you’ve submitted —
  • “heresy”
  • “corrupted manuscripts”
  • “you don’t have the Spirit”
  • “you’re a troll”
  • “blocked”
  • “RCC doctrine debunked”
  • “Mary had other children”
  • “natural man cannot understand”
  • “no textual tension”
  • “you reject truth”
— do not engage the narrative logic in Luke:
  • Mary asks a mechanism question (“How?”),
  • not a timing question (“When?”),
  • even though under your own position conception through Joseph would be entirely possible under Her expected future circumstances.
And Gabriel answers Her mechanism question with:
  • a miraculous, non‑sexual mechanism,
  • a parallel to Elizabeth’s impossible conception,
  • and “For with God nothing will be impossible.”
None of that fits the scenario you’re defending.

You can call it “heresy,” “corrupted manuscripts,” or anything else — but none of that actually answers the textual question I raised.

And you say God prevented error by having Scripture written as it was — but I am using Luke’s narrative exactly as it was written, and the problem is that your belief cannot be reconciled with it.

So if anyone is avoiding the issue, it isn’t me.

Of course, the name calling speaks for itself that the ahistorical position against the perpetual virginity--seemingly originating in heretical segments of the church per the historical record--is unbiblical. Otherwise, why have they resorted to schoolyard-bullying tactics?
 
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TiberiusMaximus

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Ok I'll refute you again seeing its so easy...

Your erroneous assumption is that Mary was speaking about the future.
But she is not, she never said "i will remain a virgin".

Instead she said that she is STILL a virgin. She is clearly speaking in the past and present tenses. A child can understand this grammar. It's past and present tense

Besides, if Mary refused to love and submit to her husband that would make her a bad wife and a bad mother for forgetting her only child in Jesrusalem by himself at the age of 12.

Answer me this...
Since you’ve joined this forum you've started several threads on this topic...
Why are you so obsessed about Mary's virginity?
Why does it matter so much to you?

The fact that Mary uses the present tense ("I do not know a man") in response to Gabriel's future tense statement ("you will conceive") defeats your position rather than supports it. Mary is responding by describing her state of being that she anticipates continuing into the future - a very common use of the present tense. And as Moonwood has explained repeatedly, Mary's response to Gabriel only makes sense by reading the passage in this way - otherwise, why is she surprised to learn she "will conceive" in the future, which is hardly a surprising thing for a betrothed and soon-to-be-fully-married wife?
 
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TiberiusMaximus

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Yes, I do not believe in the Helvidian position. Really nobody should that has any background in the Jewish Cultural context of the Bible, especially the Mitzot. or the concept of the sacred, any Godfearing Jew would be afraid to consummate the marriage literally speaking if you actually believed God incarnate or some kind of Divine miracle theophany passed through the birth canal. Furthermore there are linguistic reasons to believe the matter is not as cut and dried as it appears in some kind of English or European translation. I had Grok summarize things for me.


Here are usable quotes on the biblical idiom of “until” (heōs / heōs hou, reflecting Hebrew ʿad / ʿad-kî), which does not require that the contrary state begins afterward.
John Calvin (commentary on Matthew 1:25):

John Nolland (The Gospel of Matthew, NIGTC):

Daniel Harrington (The Gospel of Matthew, Sacra Pagina):

John Chrysostom (Homily 5 on Matthew; commenting on the same verse):

The same pattern appears throughout Scripture. Classic examples include:

  • 2 Samuel 6:23: “Michal the daughter of Saul had no child until the day of her death.”
  • Psalm 110:1: “Sit at my right hand, until I make your enemies your footstool.”
  • Genesis 8:7: the raven “went to and fro until the waters were dried up from the earth” (and never returned).
  • Matthew 28:20: “I am with you always, to the end of the age.”
In each case the “until” clause marks the period under discussion; it does not assert that the opposite state begins once the boundary is reached. That is the ordinary biblical usage of the idiom.
Yes. One of the perpetual (no pun intended) and ill-informed red herrings in the debate over the historical Christian belief about the perpetual virginity is the argument that it is un-Jewish, which has cropped up here and there in this very thread. But the doctrine is so very deeply rooted in the Hebrew Bible. And similarly, the practice of sacred celibacy, even within marriage, is attested to in the Judaism of the day - the Essenes, for instance, according to Josephus; or the example of Moses becoming celibate in his marriage after he was called by God according to the targums of the day.

There's a reason Christians have accepted this doctrine, East and West alike, almost universally until *after* the Reformation (even radical reformers like Zwingli didn't reject the doctrine) - because it's biblical and historical!
 

TiberiusMaximus

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If Mary was pure "the Ark of the New Covenant, the mother of God) while clothed in human flesh & blood why does she, like every other human need a Savior?

If the perpetual virginity argument has nothing to do with elevating Mary why do Catholics argue so vehemently against Mary being natural flesh and blood? Do you also worship, bow down and pray to her as though she is equal with God?

Quite simple. She needs a Savior because she is a human being. That doesnt somehow negate her role as Ark of the New Covenant (where God himself dwelt, in the person of Jesus Christ) or the Mother of God (since she gave birth to God incarnate - Jesus Christ).

And I don't know what you mean about "natural flesh and blood." We confess every Sunday that Jesus was "incarnate of the Virgin Mary" - acknowledging the flesh and blood realities is at the heart of our faith!

And no, the Church has long rejected the ancient heresy (Collyridianism) that would treat Mary (or any created being) as equal with God. But do we give the Mother of God her worth (i.e., "worship" in the sense the term may be used properly about creatures - like in the old english marriage rite in which the couple promises to "worship" each other) and ask for her intercession ("pray to her")? You bet we do. We'd be fools not to - Christ himself gave us Mary as our mother (John 19), and we should act accordingly.
 
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rwb

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Quite simple. She needs a Savior because she is a human being. That doesnt somehow negate her role as Ark of the New Covenant (where God himself dwelt, in the person of Jesus Christ) or the Mother of God (since she gave birth to God incarnate - Jesus Christ).

And I don't know what you mean about "natural flesh and blood." We confess every Sunday that Jesus was "incarnate of the Virgin Mary" - acknowledging the flesh and blood realities is at the heart of our faith!

And no, the Church has long rejected the ancient heresy (Collyridianism) that would treat Mary (or any created being) as equal with God. But do we give the Mother of God her worth (i.e., "worship" in the sense the term may be used properly about creatures - like in the old english marriage rite in which the couple promises to "worship" each other) and ask for her intercession ("pray to her")? You bet we do. We'd be fools not to - Christ himself gave us Mary as our mother (John 19), and we should act accordingly.

Exactly! Mary needs a Savior because she is human who was chosen by God to be the mother of Jesus, who was fully human, destined to die like every other mortal human is, natural flesh and blood. Mary is NOT the mother of GOD. Because God has no mother! He is without beginning and without end IMMORTAL GOD everlasting to everlasting! Mary is the natural mother of Jesus, the man!

When you worship and pray to Mary, a mortal human being especially chosen to give human birth to the Man, Jesus, you make her to be an idol, you are worshipping the created, which thing God forbids. God only is to be worshipped and our prayers lifted up to only Him. All who are born again of the Spirit of Christ together are of the family of God. This is what John meant when He writes Christ saying to Mary, "behold thy son" and to John, "behold thy mother." In a manner of speaking showing compassion and care one for another. All disciples of Christ (not only John) are brother, sister and mother together called the family/children/offspring of God through Christ Jesus our Lord and Savior.

Mt 12:48 But he answered and said unto him that told him, Who is my mother? and who are my brethren?
Mt 12:49
And he stretched forth his hand toward his disciples, and said, Behold my mother and my brethren!
Mt 12:50
For whosoever shall do the will of my Father which is in heaven, the same is my brother, and sister, and mother.
 

Pavel Mosko

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Yes. One of the perpetual (no pun intended) and ill-informed red herrings in the debate over the historical Christian belief about the perpetual virginity is the argument that it is un-Jewish, which has cropped up here and there in this very thread. But the doctrine is so very deeply rooted in the Hebrew Bible. And similarly, the practice of sacred celibacy, even within marriage, is attested to in the Judaism of the day - the Essenes, for instance, according to Josephus; or the example of Moses becoming celibate in his marriage after he was called by God according to the targums of the day.

There's a reason Christians have accepted this doctrine, East and West alike, almost universally until *after* the Reformation (even radical reformers like Zwingli didn't reject the doctrine) - because it's biblical and historical!

As far as the Reformers go, I think their belief was almost entirely based on some kind of study of Church history especially Arianism, Nicene Creed, and Nestorius. It is like the saying "being on the right side of history". In a lot of ways, I don't think the Reformers really got the Ancient Church as far as Jewish, Lex Orandi, Lex Credendi goes. Calvinism especially has some interesting challenges where he sometimes does show he knows some of the footnotes but learns the wrong lesson (Anti-rite and anti-superstition, talk of "binding the conscience" when his viewpoint binds the conscience in a 180 degree different way).
 

Ronald Nolette

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"Until" here does not say that after Jesus was born Joseph did know Mary, just as in Matthew 28:20 "until" does not say that after the end of the age Jesus will no longer be with us. It expresses what is true during the relevant period without implying the converse becomes true after that period ends.
YOu need to look up the definition of "until"
 

Ronald Nolette

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What is remarkable about Matthew 1, however, is that it tells us Joseph did not know Mary *even after* they had become fully married (when he took her into his home), when in a conventional marriage it would be fully expected that Joseph and Mary would have consummated more or less immediately upon her moving in with him. In other words, Matthew 1 gives us yet another data point from the pages of Scripture that, when it comes to marital intimacy, Joseph and Mary's marriage was *not* conventional.
Yes Joesph did not have sex wit Mary while she was pregnant with Jesus. That is a fairly common pracxtice among many ehtnic groups after a certain point in the pregnance, the wife simply is not that interested generally speaking.

But, the text tells us that Joseph did not have sex with Mary until Jesus was born! That is what it say in plain simple unreinterpreted language.

un·til

/ ˌənˈtil, ənˈtil /
preposition
  1. up to (the point in time or the event mentioned):
    "the kidnappers have given us until October 11th to deliver the documents" · "he held the office until his death" · "we didn't find that out until recently"
    Synonyms
    till
    up to
    pending
    through
    before
    prior to
    Antonyms
    beyond
    after
conjunction
  1. up to the point in time or the event mentioned:
    "you don't know what you can achieve until you try"

  2. The point of reference that until lspeaks of is sex and waiting to after Jesus was born.
 

Moonwood

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Your RCC predisposition is forcing you to reinterpret this verse. Her question is simple. How can I get pregnant since I am not sexually active? Gabriel tells her the Holy Ghost will impregnate her.

Neeither Mary nor Gabriel even remotely implied conception was impossible. Just that she was not active so she did not know how she could get pregnant. That is all.

Well the Holy spirit did not take on the form of a man and have physical sex with Mary. His presence was enough to do the job. so that is a red herring.

Your explanation only works if Mary believed She would never have sexual relations. But your own position is that She did expect future marital relations with Joseph. Under that expectation, conception was entirely possible — so Her natural question would be “When?” not “How?”

“How?” is a mechanism question, not a timing question. It only makes sense if conception is impossible under Her expected future circumstances.

More importantly, you still haven’t addressed Gabriel’s answer. Gabriel does not tell Her She will conceive through Joseph after consummation. He gives a miraculous, non‑sexual mechanism, cites Elizabeth’s impossible conception, and concludes: “For with God nothing will be impossible.”

None of that fits a scenario where Mary expects conception through Joseph at any point in the future.

Matthew 1:25 concerns events after the conception. It does not explain Mary’s question or Gabriel’s answer at the annunciation.

So the textual question remains: Why do both Mary and Gabriel speak and act as though conception is impossible under the very circumstances your position says make conception possible?
 

Moonwood

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Mary is NOT the mother of GOD. Because God has no mother! He is without beginning and without end IMMORTAL GOD everlasting to everlasting! Mary is the natural mother of Jesus, the man!

Elizabeth — filled with the Holy Spirit — calls Mary:

“the mother of my Lord” (Luke 1:43)

In Luke's Gospel, "Lord" is a title used for God:
  • Luke 1:17 — “before the Lord their God”
  • Luke 2:11 — “Christ the Lord”
  • Luke 1:76 — “go before the Lord”
So when Elizabeth says, "the mother of my Lord," she is recognizing that Mary is the mother of the One who is truly God in the flesh.

Elizabeth said this first, and she said it under the inspiration of the Holy Spirit.

Later, when the risen Christ appeared to the apostles, Thomas confessed directly to Jesus:

“My Lord and my God!” (John 20:28)

Jesus did not correct him. Thomas recognized that Jesus is not merely a man favored by God, but God incarnate.

Thus, the testimonies of Elizabeth and Thomas converge on the same truth. Elizabeth calls Mary “the mother of my Lord,” and Thomas calls Jesus “My Lord and my God.” Together they testify that the child Mary carried is truly God in the flesh.

That is exactly what the title "Mother of God" means.

It does not mean Mary is the origin of God's divine nature.
It does not place Mary above God.
It does not imply that Mary existed before God.

Rather, it affirms the Incarnation:
  • There is one God who eternally exists as three distinct Persons: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.
  • The Son, the second Person of the Trinity, became man.
  • Jesus Christ is one divine Person who assumed a true human nature.
  • Mary is the mother of that divine Person according to His humanity.
Therefore, because Jesus is the eternal Son made flesh, and because the Son is truly God, the woman who gave birth to Him can rightly be called the Mother of God, for the child She bore is God the Son incarnate.

This is precisely what Elizabeth confesses when she calls Mary “the mother of my Lord,” and what Thomas confirms when he declares to Jesus, “My Lord and my God.”

This does not exalt Mary above God. It recognizes what God Himself declares about Her in Scripture.

The Church's title "Mother of God" safeguards the same truth proclaimed by both Elizabeth and Thomas: that the child Mary bore is none other than the eternal Son, who is truly God in the flesh.

To deny that Mary is the Mother of God in this sense risks dividing Christ's person and separating the man Jesus from the divine Son. The title does not elevate Mary above God; it protects the truth about who Jesus is.

Elizabeth said, “the mother of my Lord.” Thomas said, “My Lord and my God.” Under the witness of the Holy Spirit and the testimony of the apostles, Thomas makes explicit what Elizabeth had already recognized: the child born of Mary is God the Son incarnate. Therefore, the title "Mother of God" is not primarily a statement about Mary, but a confession of the true identity of Jesus Christ.

When you worship and pray to Mary, a mortal human being especially chosen to give human birth to the Man, Jesus, you make her to be an idol, you are worshipping the created, which thing God forbids. God only is to be worshipped and our prayers lifted up to only Him.

I agree that God alone is to be worshipped. Catholics believe exactly the same thing. We do not worship Mary, because worship belongs only to the Holy Trinity: the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit.

We honor Mary because God honored Her by choosing Her to be the mother of God the Son incarnate. In Scripture, Elizabeth says, "Blessed are You among women" (Luke 1:42), and Mary Herself says, "All generations will call me blessed" (Luke 1:48).

When Catholics ask Mary to pray for them, we are not treating Her as a goddess or an idol. We are asking for Her intercession, much like asking a fellow Christian to pray for us. We also recognize that, as the Mother of Our Lord and the greatest of His disciples, Mary has a unique closeness to Christ. Scripture teaches that "the prayer of a righteous person has great power" (James 5:16), so we trust that Her prayers for us are especially powerful and effective. Any grace or help we receive comes from God alone, never from Mary apart from Him. An idol is something worshipped as a god.

Catholics do not believe Mary is God, nor do we offer Her the adoration that belongs to God alone.

If honoring someone automatically meant worshipping them, then honoring parents, pastors, or biblical heroes would also be worship. The real question is whether Catholics give Mary the worship due to God. Catholic teaching has always answered, "No." We honor Mary because of what God has done in Her and through Her, but we worship God alone.

Back to our conversation on the topic of this thread:

When Joseph heard that Mary was with child, even though he no doubt loved her, he had no way of knowing the child at that moment was the Holy child the prophets foretell would be born from the womb of a virgin. It wasn't until AFTER the angel of God appeared to him in a dream that Joseph believed and understood that Mary had been chosen by God to bring forth the Son who would be called Jesus and save His people from their sins. For that reason, that the prophecy would be fulfilled Joseph took Mary unto his wife, and would not know her intimately until AFTER the child was born.

Mt 1:18 ¶ Now the birth of Jesus Christ was on this wise: When as his mother Mary was espoused to Joseph, before they came together, she was found with child of the Holy Ghost.
Mt 1:19 Then Joseph her husband, being a just man, and not willing to make her a publick example, was minded to put her away privily.
Mt 1:20 But while he thought on these things, behold, the angel of the Lord appeared unto him in a dream, saying, Joseph, thou son of David, fear not to take unto thee Mary thy wife: for that which is conceived in her is of the Holy Ghost.
Mt 1:21 And she shall bring forth a son, and thou shalt call his name JESUS: for he shall save his people from their sins.
Mt 1:22 Now all this was done, that it might be fulfilled which was spoken of the Lord by the prophet, saying,
Mt 1:23 Behold, a virgin shall be with child, and shall bring forth a son, and they shall call his name Emmanuel, which being interpreted is, God with us.

Mt 1:24 Then Joseph being raised from sleep did as the angel of the Lord had bidden him, and took unto him his wife:
Mt 1:25 And knew her not till she had brought forth her firstborn son: and he called his name JESUS.

I don't disagree with what Matthew says about Joseph. Joseph initially did not understand Mary's pregnancy, and the angel later revealed to him that the child was conceived by the Holy Spirit and fulfilled Isaiah's prophecy.
But I'm not sure how Joseph's later reaction answers the question I asked about Mary's earlier conversation with Gabriel.

Your argument was that Mary's question arises from Isaiah's prophecy.
My question is: where does Luke say that?
Luke explicitly gives Mary's reason for asking:

"How will this occur, since I know not man?"

Luke does not say:

"How will this occur, since the prophet says the Messiah must be born of a virgin?"

Instead, he presents Mary's difficulty as arising from the fact that She does not know man.
More importantly, Gabriel responds to the concern Mary actually raises. He doesn't explain Isaiah. He explains how conception will occur:

"The Holy Spirit will come upon you, and the power of the Most High will overshadow you."

In other words, both Mary's question and Gabriel's answer focus on Her not knowing man and on the miraculous means of conception.

So my question remains:

If Mary's question is really about Isaiah's prophecy, why does Luke present Her as appealing to the fact that She "knows not man," and why does Gabriel answer that specific concern rather than discussing the prophecy?

It seems to me that the narrative itself focuses on Mary's virginity and the miraculous mode of conception, not on Mary's attempt to work out how Isaiah 7:14 could be fulfilled.

I don't believe you will receive anything that goes against what you have been taught.

I'm not appealing to what I've been taught.
I'm appealing to what Luke actually wrote.
 
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rwb

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Therefore, because Jesus is the eternal Son made flesh, and because the Son is truly God, the woman who gave birth to Him can rightly be called the Mother of God, for the child She bore is God the Son incarnate.

Where in the Word of God is Mary ever referred to as the mother of God? In fact where do we ever read that God has a mother? God is SPIRIT, and it is Spirit that gave the Son of God, Jesus, natural mortal human life. The question you're trying to make this about is why we worship Christ Jesus our Lord. The question is about Mary, and why some denominations are compelled to pray to and worship HER! It is not about the FACT that Jesus the Son of God is both fully man and God in the flesh.

Why the Bible Says Mary Is Not to Be Worshipped​

According to the Bible, worship is reserved for God alone, and Scripture never commands or implies that Mary, the mother of Jesus, should receive worship.

1. Worship belongs to God alone
The Ten Commandments explicitly forbid worship of anything other than God: “You shall not make for yourself an image… or bow down to them or serve them” (Exodus 20:3–5). Jesus reaffirmed this in Matthew 4:10: “Worship the Lord your God and serve him only” The New Testament shows that even angels and apostles reject worship offered to them (Revelation 19:10; 22:9; Acts 10:25–26; 14:13–14)

2. Mary’s role in Scripture
Mary is honored as “blessed among women” (Luke 1:42) and as the chosen mother of Jesus (Luke 1:38, 45–55), but the Bible never elevates her to a divine status or commands worship of her. Her blessing is due to her role in God’s plan, not because she is God Himself. As 1 Timothy 2:5–6 teaches, there is “one God, and one mediator also between God and men, the man Christ Jesus”.

3. No biblical basis for Marian worship
The Bible contains no passages instructing believers to pray to Mary, bow to her, or treat her as a mediator. Catholic traditions sometimes call this “veneration,” but biblical scholars note that such acts, when they divert glory from God, are inconsistent with Scripture Worship, by definition, is an act of devotion to the divine; directing it to a created person is idolatry.

4. The danger of misplaced worship
Scripture warns against worshiping created beings: “They worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator” (Romans 1:25) Even honoring Mary must be limited to respect and gratitude for her role in God’s work, not to worship that would usurp God’s unique place.

Summary
The Bible affirms Mary’s special place as the mother of Jesus and a model of faith, but it does not teach that she is to be worshipped. Worship is to be directed solely to God, and any honor given to Mary should be respectful admiration, not religious devotion that replaces God as the object of worship.
 

Moonwood

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It matters because it's true and part of the deposit of faith.

It has nothing to do with ideas of purity in the conventional sense you seem to be using it. Marital intimacy is a divinely ordained gift, and the Church does not teach otherwise. Mary simply had a unique role to play in salvation history (the Ark of the New Covenant, the Mother of God), and that unique role was reflected in her unusual marriage. (Though the idea of sacred celibacy was hardly foreign in the Judaism of the day, even in the context of marriage)

We do not believe Mary to be equal to God. The historic Christian teaching of the perpetual virginity has absolutely nothing to do with trying to wrongly elevate her to such a place.

Mary is NOT the mother of GOD. Because God has no mother! He is without beginning and without end IMMORTAL GOD everlasting to everlasting! Mary is the natural mother of Jesus, the man!

To keep the original discussion from becoming sidetracked, I've opened this thread for the specific purpose of examining the title "Mother of God" and its biblical and theological basis:


As for Matthew 1, not only is it not to the contrary of historical Christian teaching, it underscores it.

"Until" here does not say that after Jesus was born Joseph did know Mary, just as in Matthew 28:20 "until" does not say that after the end of the age Jesus will no longer be with us. It expresses what is true during the relevant period without implying the converse becomes true after that period ends.

What is remarkable about Matthew 1, however, is that it tells us Joseph did not know Mary *even after* they had become fully married (when he took her into his home), when in a conventional marriage it would be fully expected that Joseph and Mary would have consummated more or less immediately upon her moving in with him. In other words, Matthew 1 gives us yet another data point from the pages of Scripture that, when it comes to marital intimacy, Joseph and Mary's marriage was *not* conventional.

But, the text tells us that Joseph did not have sex with Mary until Jesus was born! That is what it say in plain simple unreinterpreted language.

To keep the original discussion from becoming sidetracked, I've opened this thread for the specific purpose of examining Matthew 1:25 and its interpretation in light of the relevant biblical and theological considerations:


Quite simple. She needs a Savior because she is a human being. That doesnt somehow negate her role as Ark of the New Covenant (where God himself dwelt, in the person of Jesus Christ) or the Mother of God (since she gave birth to God incarnate - Jesus Christ).

And I don't know what you mean about "natural flesh and blood." We confess every Sunday that Jesus was "incarnate of the Virgin Mary" - acknowledging the flesh and blood realities is at the heart of our faith!

And no, the Church has long rejected the ancient heresy (Collyridianism) that would treat Mary (or any created being) as equal with God. But do we give the Mother of God her worth (i.e., "worship" in the sense the term may be used properly about creatures - like in the old english marriage rite in which the couple promises to "worship" each other) and ask for her intercession ("pray to her")? You bet we do. We'd be fools not to - Christ himself gave us Mary as our mother (John 19), and we should act accordingly.

When you worship and pray to Mary, a mortal human being especially chosen to give human birth to the Man, Jesus, you make her to be an idol, you are worshipping the created, which thing God forbids. God only is to be worshipped and our prayers lifted up to only Him.

To keep the original discussion from becoming sidetracked, I have opened this thread for the specific purpose of examining whether the charge of "Catholic worship of Mary" is supported by Scripture and sound theological reasoning:

 
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Moonwood

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​

Summary of the Responses Received​

After ten pages of discussion, a clear pattern has emerged: while respondents differ significantly in how they attempt to defend the position that Mary and Joseph later had normal marital relations, they remain unified in their conclusion. The problem is that they are not unified in their reasoning.

In fact, many of the arguments offered contradict one another, and several cannot be true simultaneously. More importantly, none of the proposed explanations adequately account for the textual challenge that was originally raised.

My challenge was never:
  • Whether perpetual virginity is an official Catholic doctrine.
  • Whether Jesus had "brothers."
  • Whether Matthew 1:25 implies later marital relations.
  • Whether marriage is honorable.
  • Whether virginity is superior to marriage.
  • Whether Mary should be specially honored.
  • Whether Protestants or Catholics are correct overall.
  • Whether spouses owe one another conjugal rights.
  • Whether church tradition should be trusted on this issue.
The challenge was far narrower and entirely textual:

Why does Mary ask "How will this occur?" rather than "When will this occur?" in Luke 1:34, and why does Gabriel respond by explaining miraculous conception and appealing to Elizabeth's otherwise impossible conception, if Mary was simply expecting to conceive through normal future marital relations with Joseph?

That question has remained unanswered throughout the discussion.

The Different Types of Responses​

1. "Mary was only stating that She was presently a virgin."​

This response argues that Mary simply meant She had not yet had sexual relations.
However, this does not address the actual question.
The issue is not whether Mary was a virgin at that moment. Everyone agrees She was.
The question is why present virginity would create confusion about a future conception if She expected normal marital relations shortly thereafter. The explanation merely restates Mary's condition without explaining why She regarded conception as requiring further explanation.

2. "Mary was asking about immediate timing."​

Some respondents argued that Gabriel's announcement implied an immediate conception before consummation of the marriage.
This is perhaps the closest anyone came to engaging the actual issue.
However, it creates its own difficulty.
If Mary's concern was merely that conception would occur before marital relations, Gabriel's answer should clarify timing.
Instead, Gabriel explains mechanism.
Mary asks how.
Gabriel answers how.
He does not say, "Joseph will marry you sooner than expected," or, "The conception will occur later."
He explains that the Holy Spirit will bring it about and then points to Elizabeth as evidence that God accomplishes what would otherwise be impossible.
The response still leaves unexplained why impossibility becomes the focus of the conversation.

3. "Mary somehow understood a virginal conception was being predicted."​

Several replies suggested Mary already understood that a virginal conception was being predicted.
Yet Gabriel has not explained the means of conception until after Mary asks Her question, making it unclear how She would already possess that information.
This explanation appears to assume the very conclusion that Gabriel's answer is intended to establish.

4. "Mary expected a normal marriage."​

This was often asserted rather than demonstrated.
Yet this assertion is precisely what the challenge calls into question.
If Mary expected ordinary marital relations leading to ordinary conception, then Her question becomes difficult to explain.
Simply repeating that She expected a normal marriage does not resolve the difficulty. It assumes the very point under dispute.

5. "Luke 1:34-37 is not about perpetual virginity."​

Some argued that the passage should not be read as evidence for perpetual virginity because that is not Luke's purpose.
Even if that were granted, the textual question would remain.
The issue is not what Luke's ultimate purpose may have been.
The issue is why Mary asks how conception will occur and why Gabriel answers in terms of miraculous conception, impossibility, and divine intervention.

Contradictions Between the Responses​

One striking feature of the discussion is that respondents frequently contradicted one another while arriving at the same conclusion.
For example:
  • Some argued Mary was confused because conception would happen immediately.
  • Others argued Mary already knew a virginal conception was being predicted.
  • Still others argued She was simply stating Her present condition without expressing any difficulty at all.
These explanations are not merely different emphases. They are competing explanations of the same question.
Mary cannot simultaneously be puzzled because conception is immediate, already know that a virginal conception is being predicted, and merely be stating a present fact without expressing any difficulty.
The participants were united in defending the conclusion that Mary and Joseph later had marital relations, but there was no comparable unity regarding how Luke 1:34-37 should actually be explained.

The Central Issue Remains​

After ten pages, the fundamental challenge remains exactly where it began.

Mary is told She will conceive and bear a son.

Instead of asking when, She asks how.

Instead of discussing timing, Gabriel explains miraculous conception.

Instead of pointing to future marital relations with Joseph, Gabriel points to another naturally impossible but divinely enabled conception.

As @TiberiusMaximus has pointed out, there is also an additional consideration. Gabriel's announcement is a prophecy about a future conception, while Mary's response is a present-tense statement: "I know not man." This may naturally carry future significance, since Mary is responding to something that Gabriel says will happen. Whether one accepts that argument or not, however, the larger narrative problem remains unchanged.

Gabriel still answers Mary's question by describing a miraculous, non-sexual conception and by appealing to divine intervention overcoming what would otherwise be impossible. He does not point Mary to future marital relations with Joseph as the explanation. Instead, he explains supernatural conception and reinforces it by citing Elizabeth's own naturally impossible but divinely enabled conception, concluding that "nothing will be impossible with God." If Mary's conception was expected to occur through ordinary marital relations with Joseph, it remains unclear why Gabriel answers in terms of miracle, impossibility, and divine intervention rather than future marital relations.

The discussion repeatedly moved away from these details and onto questions of doctrine, church tradition, Mary's later life, Jesus' brothers, Matthew 1:25, and various broader theological disputes.
But the textual question itself was never directly answered.

Every response has either shifted to a different passage, appealed to a different doctrine, assumed the conclusion under debate, or reframed the argument into something other than the challenge that was actually presented.
For that reason, after ten pages of discussion, the original textual problem remains standing exactly as it was posed:

Why do both Mary and Gabriel speak as though conception requires a miraculous explanation if ordinary future marital relations with Joseph were already expected to provide the answer?
 
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