David, there is no mention of a resurrection/rapture in Revelation 19 taking place when Jesus returns.
You are correct. Therefore, it is a matter of squaring the following, for example, then.
Hebrews 9:28 So Christ was once offered to bear the sins of many; and unto them that look for him shall he appear the second time without sin unto salvation.
1 Thessalonians 4:13 ¶But I would not have you to be ignorant, brethren, concerning them which are asleep, that ye sorrow not, even as others which have no hope.
14 For if we believe that Jesus died and rose again, even so them also which sleep in Jesus will God bring with him.
15 For this we say unto you by the word of the Lord, that we which are alive and remain unto the coming of the Lord shall not prevent them which are asleep.
16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:
17 Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.
Matthew 24:30 And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory.
Asuming this coming---A) the coming of the Lord(1 Thessalonians 4:15---is not involving this coming---B) and they shall see the Son of man coming(Matthew 24:30)---which coming, A) or B), are we to apply this to---shall he appear the second time(Hebrews 9:28)?
If we apply it to A), then what about when He appears during B)? Where is there a single Scripture that says He comes a third time? If it can mention a second time, but in reality 3 comings are involved, it can certainly mention a third time. So where is there such a Scripture?
But if we apply it to B) rather than A), B) is a false statement in that case, since it ignores the coming per A).
What's the solution then. Just contradict something either way? Or that maybe both A) and B) involve only one coming, and now there is no contradiction? Apparently, Pretribbers would not make good detectives, because a good detective when examining these things, would not be trying to prove something via contradictions, but would be trying to prove it via sound logic. I get it. Apparently, Pretribbers couldn't care less about sound logic, so I guess my point is moot then.
unto the coming of the Lord(1 Thess 4:15) Per Pretrib is this a coming that doesn't involve Jesus literally coming or appearing anywhere? That He just simply stays in heaven and summons them up to heaven where He is? That He doesn't literally come or appear anywhere? But if He does literally come and appear somewhere, regardless what He does after that, no one can then argue, and expect to be taken serious, that this coming doesn't count as a coming nor an appearance. That would be like arguing that a thief breaks into someone's home unnoticed then leaves. That this doesn't count as a coming nor appearing anywhere since no one noticed at the time.