Trinity vs. Tritheism: Understanding the Trinity.

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Dave L

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Nonsense. Why do we need a trinity to establish the full divinity of the Son of God, begotten before time began? Oh, sorry, of course. YOu believe in the trinity, how silly of me...you don't believe God had a Son. You just believe God had a co-equal co-eval co-eternal being He just pretended was a son. Right?
If the Son did not exist until the incarnation, he was created at that time and is not God.
 

justbyfaith

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Indeed. The Son rises from the dead to exist outside of time as does the Father. I have already shown you these things, @Dave L, of which you have become willfully ignorant.
 
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Dave L

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Indeed. The Son rises from the dead to exist outside of time as does the Father. I have already shown you these things, @Dave L, of which you have become willfully ignorant.
The Father must have the Son to be the Father. The Son exists as eternally begotten by the Father. You make the Son created and not God by placing him in time.
 

justbyfaith

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Jesus walked the earth in the context of existing within our time domain. Are you saying that He didn't?
 
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Dave L

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Jesus walked the earth in the context of existing within our time domain. Are you saying that He didn't?
He was before creation.

“The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.” (John 1:2–3) (KJV 1900)
 

justbyfaith

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He was before creation.

“The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.” (John 1:2–3) (KJV 1900)
Of course...because He rose from the dead to again exist outside of time...for He now fills all things (Ephesians 4:10).

On another note along the same lines...How do you reconcile that fact (that He fills all things) with the understanding that He is come in the flesh...existing in a finite, human body?

I reconcile it by believing that the 2nd Person of the Trinity is a finite human being, but that the 3rd Person is the same Person as the 2nd...but that He in that Spirit form is Omnipresent.

Like this...Jesus (the 2nd Person of the Trinity) is confined to a finite human body; but that Jesus (the Holy Ghost, 3rd Person) fills all things and is Omnipresent.
 
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Dave L

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Of course...because He rose from the dead to again exist outside of time...for He now fills all things (Ephesians 4:10).

On another note along the same lines...How do you reconcile that fact (that He fills all things) with the understanding that He is come in the flesh...existing in a finite, human body?

I reconcile it by believing that the 2nd Person of the Trinity is a finite human being, but that the 3rd Person is the same Person as the 2nd...but that He in that Spirit form is Omnipresent.

Like this...Jesus (the 2nd Person of the Trinity) is confined to a finite human body; but that Jesus (the Holy Ghost, 3rd Person) fills all things and is Omnipresent.
Where does scripture directly say the Father became the Son? Or the Son became the Holy Spirit? It never mentions this meaning that your theory is a lie which also means it is of the Devil, whose main attribute is lying. And being a lie, do you think people get to heaven believing it?
 

justbyfaith

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Where does scripture directly say the Father became the Son?

The holy scriptures teach it, in Isaiah 9:6 primarily; also by a comparison of John 4:23-24 and John 14:7-11: also by the fact that there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5), the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21); and that no one can say that Jesus is that Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3).

Or the Son became the Holy Spirit?

Is not the Holy Spirit, in certain places in scripture, called the Spirit of Christ? Luke 23:46 would be my primary verse that indicates what really happened: not that the Son became the Holy Spirit; but that the Spirit of the Son is the Holy Spirit, whom He released to the Father.
 
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Dave L

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The holy scriptures teach it, in Isaiah 9:6 primarily; also by a comparison of John 4:23-24 and John 14:7-11: also by the fact that there is one Lord (Ephesians 4:5), the Father (Matthew 11:25, Luke 10:21); and that no one can say that Jesus is that Lord except by the Holy Ghost (1 Corinthians 12:3).



Is not the Holy Spirit, in certain places in scripture, called the Spirit of Christ? Luke 23:46 would be my primary verse that indicates what really happened: not that the Son became the Holy Spirit; but that the Spirit of the Son is the Holy Spirit, whom He released to the Father.
No direct quotes = lie = work of the Devil.
 

justbyfaith

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No scripture = no claim for the truth.
Indeed...and you are ignoring the scriptures that I have presented. So take some scissors and cut those ones in particular out of your Bible...because that is what you have already done in your heart, in violation of Revelation 22:19.