What Do The Book of Daniel DECEIVERS Present?!?

[CharismaticLady]

Genesis_15:16 is the prophecy that pointed to the 1948 return to the Land of Canaan. However to understand this prophecy, we need to consider that 15:16 is a very separate prophecy to the 15:13-14 prophecy.

The understanding is centred around the understanding of the Hebrew word וְד֥וֹר wə·ḏō·wr Were the embedded Hebrew root H:1755 has the meaning of "a revolution of time, i.e. An age or generation;". Now if we consider that an age is a little longer than 1000 years, then this prophecy is speaking of a time period of between 3,000 plus - 4,000 plus years when Abraham's descendants would return to the Land of Canaan in the first half of the verse and the second half of the verse speaks of the condition of the Amorite people when they return.

From my understanding of the Chronology of the OT, Isaac was born in the year 2052 BC so the time span from 2052 BC to 1948 AD is exactly 4,000 years in the fourth age of the existence of the Abraham's descendant born to Sarah, his wife. Is it a coincidence that exactly 4,000 years separate these two events? I do not believe so. The prophecy of 15:16 would have been just as correct if the time span had of been 100 years either side of the 4,000 year time span.

However, the precise 4,000 years between these two events, i.e. Isaac's birth and the descendants return to the Land, is confirmed by the other prophecies that lock in this date to God's prophetic timeline.

Shalom

All I see is a prophecy of the children of Israel being slaves to the Egyptians for 400 years. I just googled the year Isaac was born and got:

On the Gregorian calendar (the one you might have on your wall) the year was 1933 BC.

On the Hebrew calendar, sometimes called the biblical calendar, the year was 2114 AM.

Where did you get 2052 BC?

 

[CharismaticLady]

It was the Medo Persian Ram that attacked in three directions, not the He-goat Greek Empire. However, the "Little Horn" is said to come out of "one of them" - "them" referring to one of the four winds, not the horns. Daniel's prophecies move East to West.

It is plain as day that the he goat (Greece) attacked the ram, and broke its two horns, Medo Persia, and trampled it. The single horn of the he goat is Alexander the Great. He died and four horns grew in its place, each going in one of four directions. (four generals). THEN a little horn grows out of one of the four generals and takes over three directions, including Israel. That little horn defiled the temple. Who in history could that be if not Antiochus Epiphanes IV. Go back and read Daniel 8 again. It is nuts that you still can't see the difference between Medo Persia and Greece.

 

[Enoch111]

Something very significant to the Jewish people happened on 1948, so there must be a prophecy somewhere that it fulfills.

The re-gathering of the Jews to the land of Israel by God will be a supernatural event, probably involving angels. But it will be AFTER the second coming of Christ.

1948 was merely a precursor, and the Jews who came to Palestine were secular and unbelieving (for the most part). There was also terrorist activity by both the Jews and the Arabs, and many innocents died during that early conflict. Since then the Muslim and Arab world has tried to exterminate the Jews and Israel, but to no avail. There is no question that God's hand has been over unbelieving Israel, and now many Jews are being converted to Christ.

What is of greater significance is the recent declaration of Jerusalem as the capital of Israel. Jerusalem will play a very significant role in future events, the third temple will be built, and the Antichrist will make it the seat of his power. Eventually Jerusalem will be redeemed and restored under Christ, but the desecrated temple will probably be destroyed in the great earthquake which will take place at that time.

 

[CharismaticLady]

The 70 Weeks are "amputated" from the 2,300, which means both prophecies begin at the same time: 457 B.C. What temple and what priesthood was available to be cleansed 2,300 literal days after the decree? None.

Again you are combining two separate prophecies. Each of the prophecies start with Medo Persia, but that is where the similarity ends. Daniel 8 ends with the Jewish revolt before Christ, and Daniel 9 ends with the Jewish revolt after Christ. Interestingly each revolt lasted close to 7 years if you just count from beginning year to end year. 167 BC to 160 BC; 66 AD to 73 AD. But more precisely, Daniel 8 was 2300 evenings and mornings (literal 24 hour days, the same as creation week.) In both revolts before and after Christ there was an abomination done to the temple.

I simply cannot believe how advocates of 2,300 literal days completely ignore the plain words of Gabriel that the 70 Weeks are "amputated" from the 2,300. The moment he launches into his explanation of the 2,300 days which so confused Daniel, he immediately begins with "70 Weeks are amputated"...inescapable...irrefutable...totally Scriptural You simply cannot disconnect and transport into the future to some 2nd century B.C. Jewish rebellion and apply those Days to it, when they are intrinsically tied to the beginning of the 70 Weeks, which was centuries before that rebellion.

Look at this from Gabriel. Daniel 8:
“And the vision of the evenings and mornings
Which was told is true;
Therefore seal up the vision,
For it refers to many days in the future.”

That is the end of that vision. Daniel 9 is a DIFFERENT vision which includes the coming of the Messiah.

No, that was the AoD that Daniel predicted and of which Jesus reminded the people - when the Romans surrounded the city and planted their Sun God standards on the holy, sacred ground which surrounded Jerusalem - the same Sun god that the Jewish leaders were worshiping that God called the greatest of all Ezekiel's visual abominations.

That was in response to my post about the Jewish revolt that destroyed the temple in 70 AD.

What dates are you referring to that the Romans set up their Sun God? You didn't say.

 

[CharismaticLady]

I am a Berean...one who understands that the 2,300 Days and the 70 Weeks have the same starting date because the one is amputated from the other.

Surely, you must understand that the thing that is being amputated has to be smaller than the thing from which it is amputated, and not visa-versa, right?

The 70 Weeks are 490 days which are amputated from the 2,300 days, and since we all recognize that the 70 Weeks are 490 years, that means the 2,300 must also be years, too, because that's the only way the smaller 70 Weeks can be amputated from the larger 2,300 Days.

No, you are wrong. The first vision was sealed before the second one began.

 

[CharismaticLady]

The re-gathering of the Jews to the land of Israel by God will be a supernatural event, probably involving angels. But it will be AFTER the second coming of Christ.

1948 was merely a precursor, and the Jews who came to Palestine were secular and unbelieving (for the most part). There was also terrorist activity by both the Jews and the Arabs, and many innocents died during that early conflict. Since then the Muslim and Arab world has tried to exterminate the Jews and Israel, but to no avail. There is no question that God's hand has been over unbelieving Israel, and now many Jews are being converted to Christ.

What is of greater significance is the recent declaration of Jerusalem as the capital of Israel. Jerusalem will play a very significant role in future events, the third temple will be built, and the Antichrist will make it the seat of his power. Eventually Jerusalem will be redeemed and restored under Christ, but the desecrated temple will probably be destroyed in the great earthquake which will take place at that time.

As you say, "There is no question that God's hand has been over unbelieving Israel, and now many Jews are being converted to Christ." I agree, but I also believe God knew and orchestrated the date of 1948. So there has to be a prophecy. At least, I think so.

 

[Jay Ross]

My words were not for you! They were for anyone gullible enough to believe your ramblings.

And for anyone interested, the SPECIFIC YEAR 1948 and it's associated SIGNIFICANCE is CITED IN SCRIPTURE. But you won't find it where some FALSELY allude.


Bobby Jo

Sadly Bobby, you have made an accusation without providing the proof to back it up with. Perhaps it is you whom gullible people should be afraid of.

I provided my apologue/biblical evidence as to why I believed what I had posted was correct. I await your posting of your biblical rebuttal evidence to show why you are correct instead.

 

[Bobby Jo]

... the Jews who came to Palestine were secular and unbelieving ...

I know of a guy who came to this forum who was secular and unbelieving, and I think the same of him that YOU think of GOD Chosen People. Of course the difference is, -- GOD PROTECTS and DEFENDS his Children, but you're on your own.


Bobby Jo

 

[Bobby Jo]

Sadly Bobby, you have made an accusation without providing the proof to back it up with. Perhaps it is you whom gullible people should be afraid of.

I provided my apologue/biblical evidence as why I believed what I had posted was correct. I await your posting of your biblical rebuttal evidence to show why you are correct instead.

It's "Bobby Jo", if my parents had wanted to call me "Bobby", I'm sure they would have named me "Bobby".

And my comment regarding 1948 was for OTHERS!
Bobby Jo

 

[Enoch111]

I agree, but I also believe God knew and orchestrated the date of 1948. So there has to be a prophecy. At least, I think so.

The only significance is that from Adam to 1948 was 6,000 years (going by Bible Chronology).

 

[Enoch111]

Of course the difference is, -- GOD PROTECTS and DEFENDS his Children, but you're on your own.

Another presumptuous, obnoxious, and stupid comment from Bobby Jo.

 

[CharismaticLady]

The only significance is that from Adam to 1948 was 6,000 years (going by Bible Chronology).

But wasn't Adam 4004 BC?

And 1 AD was actually 3-6 BC

I can't see 1948

 

[Bobby Jo]

The only significance is that from Adam to 1948 was 6,000 years (going by Bible Chronology).

Yeah, plus or minus a couple hundred years.

I guess that's as close to anything YOU know about the end times.

How do we spell ignoramus?!?
Bobby Jo

 

[Bobby Jo]

... I can't see 1948

You're not alone. Most Christians and christians are oblivious to Scripture's prophetic concepts. A large part of the blame goes to the commentators who defied angelic instructions, contrived a FALSE Scripture, and a FALSE History. Some of GOD's children might see through the balderdash with a little help, if they were interested. But most aren't interested. They're content having their ears tickled.

Have you had your ears tickled lately?!? Maybe you should "talk" to @Jay Ross or @Enoch111. They're always good for a load of balderdash.

Bobby Jo

 

[Jay Ross]

All I see is a prophecy of the children of Israel being slaves to the Egyptians for 400 years. I just googled the year Isaac was born and got:

On the Gregorian calendar (the one you might have on your wall) the year was 1933 BC.

On the Hebrew calendar, sometimes called the biblical calendar, the year was 2114 AM.

Where did you get 2052 BC?

Hi Charismatic,

I have a book on my shelf, Encyclopedia of Biblical Prophecy, The Complete Guide to Scriptural Predictions and Their Fulfilment, by J. Barton Payne which claims the same thing, that Genesis_15:16 is inexplicitly linked to the prophecy in Gen_15:13-14, but these two prophecies are separated by the Gen_15:14 prophecy that God gave concerning Abraham's future life for over the next 100 or so years. If the 15:16 prophecy was linked to the 13-14 prophecy, they would not have been separated as they are by God when He gave the prophecies to Abraham.

Because of the 4,000 years that this prophecy covered, scholars could not comprehend how that time span was possible and searched for another plausible solution which then lead to another assumption that has been made, that there would only be only four generation of Israelites born in Egypt during their 430 years of living in that land. However, the Bible also provides a chronology of Ephraim's descendants where there were listed 10 descendant generations in that particular line with respect to that genealogy. This is the dilemma we are all faced with when reading commentaries that repeat flawed conclusions.

As to the year that Isaac was born, Ussher calculated the date of Isaac's birth as occurring in the year, 1896 BC. with respect to the Georgian calendar. Ussher also calculated that Adam was created by God, in the year 4004 BC. He also said that Terah had died when Abraham left Haran to go down to the land of Canaan, which introduced a 60 year error into his calculations. Ussher had other errors as well. He also worked on the a day of the Lord is equal to a 1,000 solar year principle which meant that he adjusted his calculations to fit this constraint. which is also, IMHO, a flawed assumption.

By my calculations Isaac was born at the beginning of the year 2049 AM, when we convert this to the Gregorian calendar, I calculate that it relates to the beginning of the year 2052 BC.

I have no problems if you come to a differing conclusions after your careful study on this particular aspect of the scriptures.

Shalom

 

[Enoch111]

But wasn't Adam 4004 BC?

Martin Anstey corrected the errors of Ptolemy and showed that 1 BC was in fact 4042 AH (after Adam or Anno Hominis). When you add 1948 to 4042 you get 5,990. So it is close to 6,000 years.

'Now in calculating the birth of Christ, 4071 (His baptism) - 30 years of age = 4041 + 1 (for incl. reckoning going back to B.C from A.D.) = 4042. Mauro notes this in his book, but he also inadvertently forgot to add one (+1) to 4041 which Anstey did do to give us the correct An. Hom. year for Christ's birth as 4042. This translates to 5 B.C.; again, a historically synchronized event in that Herod died in 4 B.C. and Christ was born a little time before his death. The person responsible (Dionysius Exiguus, 532 A.D.) for creating these A.D. dates was off in his A.D. 1 date. No one refutes this. Thus the reason Anstey says, "4042 = 1 BC." On this point he is clear and correct. We can also double check our math on this: 30 years of age minus 26 A.D. = 4 B.C. + 1 (incl. reckoning) = 5 B.C. as the year of Christ's birth. Again, Anstey confers this as well...

We can also check our math on this 26 A.D. date back to Daniel's prophecy of 483 years. The year A.D. 26 - 483 = 457 B.C. + 1 (for incl. reckoning) = 458 B.C. (Mauro gives 457 B.C. because he forgot to add one for inclusive reckoning). 458 is the correct B.C. date, not 445 B.C., or some other date. Biblical chronology determines this, not Ptolemy or some other profane chronologies.'

https://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/1913_anstey_romance.html

 

[CharismaticLady]

Hi Charismatic,

I have a book on my shelf, Encyclopedia of Biblical Prophecy, The Complete Guide to Scriptural Predictions and Their Fulfilment, by J. Barton Payne which claims the same thing, that Genesis_15:16 is inexplicitly linked to the prophecy in Gen_15:13-14, but these two prophecies are separated by the Gen_15:14 prophecy that God gave concerning Abraham's future life for over the next 100 or so years. If the 15:16 prophecy was linked to the 13-14 prophecy, they would not have been separated as they are by God when He gave the prophecies to Abraham.

Because of the 4,000 years that this prophecy covered, scholars could not comprehend how that time span was possible and searched for another plausible solution which then lead to another assumption that has been made, that there would only be only four generation of Israelites born in Egypt during their 430 years of living in that land. However, the Bible also provides a chronology of Ephraim's descendants where there were listed 10 descendant generations in that particular line with respect to that genealogy. This is the dilemma we are all faced with when reading commentaries that repeat flawed conclusions.

As to the year that Isaac was born, Ussher calculated the date of Isaac's birth as occurring in the year, 1896 BC. with respect to the Georgian calendar. Ussher also calculated that Adam was created by God, in the year 4004 BC. He also said that Terah had died when Abraham left Haran to go down to the land of Canaan, which introduced a 60 year error into his calculations. Ussher had other errors as well. He also worked on the a day of the Lord is equal to a 1,000 solar year principle which meant that he adjusted his calculations to fit this constraint. which is also, IMHO, a flawed assumption.

By my calculations Isaac was born at the beginning of the year 2049 AM, when we convert this to the Gregorian calendar, I calculate that it relates to the beginning of the year 2052 BC.

I have no problems if you come to a differing conclusions after your careful study on this particular aspect of the scriptures.

Shalom

Mind boggling!

 

[CharismaticLady]

Martin Anstey corrected the errors of Ptolemy and showed that 1 BC was in fact 4042 AH (after Adam or Anno Hominis). When you add 1948 to 4042 you get 5,990. So it is close to 6,000 years.

'Now in calculating the birth of Christ, 4071 (His baptism) - 30 years of age = 4041 + 1 (for incl. reckoning going back to B.C from A.D.) = 4042. Mauro notes this in his book, but he also inadvertently forgot to add one (+1) to 4041 which Anstey did do to give us the correct An. Hom. year for Christ's birth as 4042. This translates to 5 B.C.; again, a historically synchronized event in that Herod died in 4 B.C. and Christ was born a little time before his death. The person responsible (Dionysius Exiguus, 532 A.D.) for creating these A.D. dates was off in his A.D. 1 date. No one refutes this. Thus the reason Anstey says, "4042 = 1 BC." On this point he is clear and correct. We can also double check our math on this: 30 years of age minus 26 A.D. = 4 B.C. + 1 (incl. reckoning) = 5 B.C. as the year of Christ's birth. Again, Anstey confers this as well...

We can also check our math on this 26 A.D. date back to Daniel's prophecy of 483 years. The year A.D. 26 - 483 = 457 B.C. + 1 (for incl. reckoning) = 458 B.C. (Mauro gives 457 B.C. because he forgot to add one for inclusive reckoning). 458 is the correct B.C. date, not 445 B.C., or some other date. Biblical chronology determines this, not Ptolemy or some other profane chronologies.'

https://www.preteristarchive.com/Books/1913_anstey_romance.html

Have any corrections been made to our calendar to say what year it actually is today?

 

[CharismaticLady]

I have to commend @Jay Ross and @Enoch111 for painstakingly seeking the truth, in the midst of so many errors to our calendars! I don't know how it can be done with 100% accuracy, but that doesn't stop them from trying. I can just see God smiling at them. All I know is God is never late. He is always precise, and anything having to do with Israel, He tells us through prophecy in advance. Always.

Guys, what about the Jewish calendar. It is under 6000 by over 100, I think. 5779. When did this calendar start, and why don't we have closer dates to each other?

 

[CharismaticLady]

Media Persia conquer Babylon in 539 BC.
Decree to rebuild Jerusalem 457 BC., though the work never got started until 444 BC. One of those dates is the start date of 70 weeks prophecy.
Greece (Alexander the Great) conquers Media Persia during war from 334 BC to 331 BC.
Alexander dies, and kingdom is divided to his four generals, Ptolemy, Cassander, Seleucus, and Antigones. Out of Seleucus a little horn rose up and pushed in three directions, including the Glorious Land/Jerusalem. The little horn ruled his kingdom from 175 BC to 164 BC. torturing the Jews. The Jews revolted in 167 BC to 160 BC, just under 7 years. Broken down to days it measured 2300 days. The beginning date of the 2300 day prophecy cannot be 457 BC as it would end in 450 BC. while it was still in Persian rule. But the prophecy contains the take over by Greece, so to say that 457 BC, the start date for the 70 weeks prophecy is the same date for the 2300 day prophecy when they have absolutely nothing to do with each other is sssstttttrrrrreeeettttcccchhhhiiinnggg it.