Mark 10:12 When was it possible for a wife to divorce her husband?

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Grailhunter

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Mark 10:12

Was it possible for a woman to divorce her husband in the biblical era?

When (time period) was it possible for a woman to divorce her husband?

Would she write her husband a certificate / bill of divorcement?
Is there a scripture that addresses a wife writing her husband a certificate of divorce?

Is there any historical evidence of a woman divorcing her husband in the biblical era?

What would it mean is she just left her husband?

NASB
“and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery."

New KJV
And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.”

KJV
And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.
 

Episkopos

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A woman is married to her husband as long as he lives. This principle is used by Paul to show that we are "married" to the old man until we are crucified away from our previous life....the life of self. Then we are free to marry another...who is Christ the Lord.
 

The wind

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Mark 10:12

Was it possible for a woman to divorce her husband in the biblical era?

When (time period) was it possible for a woman to divorce her husband?

Would she write her husband a certificate / bill of divorcement?
Is there a scripture that addresses a wife writing her husband a certificate of divorce?

Is there any historical evidence of a woman divorcing her husband in the biblical era?

What would it mean is she just left her husband?

NASB
“and if she herself divorces her husband and marries another man, she is committing adultery."

New KJV
And if a woman divorces her husband and marries another, she commits adultery.”

KJV
And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery.

The only grounds whereupon a born again Christian can divorce is if the other has committed fornication, which is to say, they were defiled with their own works, and went a whoring with their own inventions. The fornication is spiritual fornication and the works of man are sin.
 

Grailhunter

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The only grounds whereupon a born again Christian can divorce is if the other has committed fornication, which is to say, they were defiled with their own works, and went a whoring with their own inventions. The fornication is spiritual fornication and the works of man are sin.

Agreed....even so look at the questions again. Even if a woman's husband did all that....could she divorce him? And how?
 

Grailhunter

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A woman is married to her husband as long as he lives. This principle is used by Paul to show that we are "married" to the old man until we are crucified away from our previous life....the life of self. Then we are free to marry another...who is Christ the Lord.

The questions are not about the reasons that justified a woman to divorce her husband, it was about if she could.
Your answer..... A woman is married to her husband as long as he lives....is ultimately correct.....no matter what he did. No Christian procedure for a Christian woman to divorce her husband. No civil recourse until 1857 but it did not give custody of the children to the mother. Abuse of children and wives would not be legally addressed until the latter part of the 20th century.

Children under English common law were considered the property of their fathers, as women were considered property of their husbands, until the late 1800's. American colonists in the 16th and 17th centuries also carried the tradition of children being property of their fathers....even though they recognized some very limited rights of women.

It was not until 1988 that congress addressed the issue with the Child Abuse Prevention, Adoption, and Family Services Act.

Before 1857 if a woman fled her husband, it was automatically assumed she had committed adultery. Back in the day, the term chambering a woman, meant a woman found alone in a room with the door closed, in which case it was assumed she had committed adultery.
 

VictoryinJesus

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The questions are not about the reasons that justified a woman to divorce her husband, it was about if she could.
Your answer..... A woman is married to her husband as long as he lives....is ultimately correct.....no matter what he did. No Christian procedure for a Christian woman to divorce her husband. No civil recourse until 1857 but it did not give custody of the children to the mother. Abuse of children and wives would not be legally addressed until the latter part of the 20th century.

Children under English common law were considered the property of their fathers, as women were considered property of their husbands, until the late 1800's. American colonists in the 16th and 17th centuries also carried the tradition of children being property of their fathers....even though they recognized some very limited rights of women.

It was not until 1988 that congress addressed the issue with the Child Abuse Prevention, Adoption, and Family Services Act.

Before 1857 if a woman fled her husband, it was automatically assumed she had committed adultery. Back in the day, the term chambering a woman, meant a woman found alone in a room with the door closed, in which case it was assumed she had committed adultery.

so basically you want to talk about the lesser meaning in how it applies in the natural and not the Spiritual?
 

The wind

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To leave is to forsake the covenant of marriage: which thing is to be done openly by writing a letter of divorcement so that the other has a witness. Furthermore, he that lives in the pleasures of sin is dead while he lives as it is written.
 

VictoryinJesus

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I will talk about whatever you want to talk about.
No. It is your thread...I’m sorry. I’m just touchy when it comes to topics such as these. What I’ve come to realize is many things I once thought God was a respecter of persons or harsh on, was in place and the way they were (are)...always, always to reveal the Son. As Episkopos brought out.
A woman is married to her husband as long as he lives. This principle is used by Paul to show that we are "married" to the old man until we are crucified away from our previous life....the life of self. Then we are free to marry another...who is Christ the Lord.
 

Grailhunter

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No. It is your thread...I’m sorry. I’m just touchy when it comes to topics such as these. What I’ve come to realize is many things I once thought God was a respecter of persons or harsh on, was in place and the way they were (are)...always, always to reveal the Son. As Episkopos brought out.

ok
 

101G

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GINOLJC, to all
a woman can "put away" her husband under the Law. Mark 10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery".

for if one put away their spouse, A. if for Fornication, no bill of divorcement is needed as with joseph and mary. if B. adultery, then a bill of divorcement. for these verse here in Mark clearly give us the understanding of Marriage and Divorce, and remarriage.
PICJAG.
 

Grailhunter

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GINOLJC, to all
a woman can "put away" her husband under the Law. Mark 10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery".

for if one put away their spouse, A. if for Fornication, no bill of divorcement is needed as with joseph and mary. if B. adultery, then a bill of divorcement. for these verse here in Mark clearly give us the understanding of Marriage and Divorce, and remarriage.
PICJAG.

Mark 10:12 was quoted from various translations
Bill of divorcement is for males....no example or instruction for a female to write a bill of divorcement for any reason. No custom or procedure in Christianity. No historical precedent set. First female initiated divorce, sometime after 1857. In this case I am hoping you can prove me wrong, for more than one reason. I have yet to see a suggestion or example of a female using a bill of divorcement, not even in the writing of the ECF's.
 

101G

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Mark 10:12 was quoted from various translations
Bill of divorcement is for males....no example or instruction for a female to write a bill of divorcement for any reason. No custom or procedure in Christianity. No historical precedent set. First female initiated divorce, sometime after 1857. In this case I am hoping you can prove me wrong, for more than one reason. I have yet to see a suggestion or example of a female using a bill of divorcement, not even in the writing of the ECF's.
can a woman put away her husband? yes, that's clear. Mark 10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery". if she just put him away only, without a bill of divorcement and marry another she is an adulteresses. as a male in the same act, an adulterer.
now as for an example in the OT, I don't have one, only here in Mark as to what the Lord Jesus said, and he don't lie.
so I can only go on what the Lord said.
PICJAG.
 

101G

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Just thinking about this, who in the bible in scripture actually gave his wife a bill of divorcement?
if you have a scripture please post it.
PICJAG.
 

Grailhunter

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can a woman put away her husband? yes, that's clear. Mark 10:12 And if a woman shall put away her husband, and be married to another, she committeth adultery". if she just put him away only, without a bill of divorcement and marry another she is an adulteresses. as a male in the same act, an adulterer.
now as for an example in the OT, I don't have one, only here in Mark as to what the Lord Jesus said, and he don't lie.
so I can only go on what the Lord said.
PICJAG.

I understand what it says, I am saying it never happened. Men divorced women but no find on a woman divorcing her husband.
When we get to the European societies it was not possible until 1857.
Looking for something like "and she wrote him a bill of divorcement" or "she shall write him a bill of divorcement." Or a historical record of such. No historical example.
 

Grailhunter

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Just thinking about this, who in the bible in scripture actually gave his wife a bill of divorcement?
if you have a scripture please post it.
PICJAG.

I think you are right. The process is described and clear that it happened but no specific event.
 

101G

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I think you are right. The process is described and clear that it happened but no specific event.
thank you, I'm glad you have an open mind. just a simple discussion leads to important fact, instead of assumptions, again thank you.
PICJAG.
 

Grailhunter

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I think you are right. The process is described and clear that it happened but no specific event.

I am still looking for an historical case were women could divorce their husbands, maybe in one of the Christian Kingdoms during the Middle Ages. There were cases where wives left their husbands....But no dissolution of marriage. Not even a process described.