You are still dodging the question.
You've given this assertion, I'm questioning you on it. But you won't answer my question. This is above is yet another non-answer.
Was Jesus omniscient during His earthly ministry before the cross?
The simple answer is, No, He was not. He did not know the time of His Own return. Why? Why did He not know that? Because He, though He was God, yet He emptied Himself, that is, He stopped being omniscient, and only knew what a man knows, and what the Holy Spirit revealed to Him.
This is what it means that He "emptied Himself". He relinquished for His earthly life His limitless knowledge, and power, and presence, and became a man, doing what a man can do, in the power of the Holy Spirit. Did Jesus stop being God? No. Fully God and fully man, yes, I believe that.
Much love!
Does God get hungry ?
Does God get tired ?
Does God get thirsty ?
Does God sleep ?
Does God bleed ?
No those are things we as humans go through the same with knowledge. Jesus grew in wisdom and knowledge like all men do .
So as a man He was limited hence His human nature was limited.
And as God He has no limits other than what He chose to set aside in obedience to the Father as per Philippians 2.
The Hypostatic Union
1. Jesus is a person. (1 Tim 2:5)
2. Jesus, the Person, has two natures- Divine and human (John 1:1, 14, 1 Timothy 3:16): Divine and human. This is the Hypostatic Union.( Col 2:9, Heb 1:3,2:16)
3. The Communicatio Idiomatum (Communication of the Properties) states that the attributes of His Divine nature and human nature are both ascribed to the one Person of Jesus. So Jesus can exhibit attributes of Divinity (Omnipresence, Omniscience, Omnipotence, . John 2:23, 3:13, 8:58, He was prayed to in Acts 7:59, John 14:13, He was is worshiped Matt 2:2:11, Rev 5:13-14) and at the same time exhibit attributes of His humanity( He was tempted, ate, prayed,wept, grew in wisdom and stature,was anointed,was baptized, the Father was greater, didn’t know the day or the hour of His Return, He cried My God my God why has Thou forsaken Me, He died etc.). The communicatio idiomatum does not mean that any part of the Divine nature was communicated to the human nature.
4. The Man(anthropos) Jesus is what we perceive (if we were there 2000 years ago in Israel) and through the Man we encounter the Divine nature (Jesus knowing all things, is on earth while in heaven, answers prayer, forgiving sins, etc.).
5. The Person of Jesus will always be both Divine and human. (John 1:1,14,20:28, 1 John 5:20, 1 Timothy 2:5) Those who deny this fact are the spirit of antichrist. (1 John 4:1-4,2 John 7)
6. The Divine Nature is within the Trinity.(Father, Son and Holy Spirit)
7. Since the Person of Jesus claims the attributes of Divinity(John 3:13,8:58,Matthew 9:2,12:8), then the Person of Jesus is a member of the Trinity.( John 14-16, Math 28:19)
Anything said of either of Christ's two natures applies to the one Person of Christ, so that is how it is said that Christ died on the cross. The term "hypostatic union" refers to the two natures united in the one Person, so anything said of those two natures in the one Person applies to the whole Person. So we see that the Person of Christ is both God and man. The phrase hypostatic union was adopted by the fifth general council at Constantinople, 533 AD. That council declared that the union of two natures is real (against Arius), not a mere indwelling of God in a man (against Nestorius), with a rational soul (against Apollinaris), and that in Christ’s Divine nature remains unchanged (against Eutyches).
hope this helps !!!