It is a stretch if you are not a member of the Orthodox, Coptic, or RCC; but what is more of a stretch? A translation that was taught early in church history or one that is part of a challenge to the established rule? which took 1500 years to be brought into focus?
*NEWS FLASH*We have not had these translations for 1500 years, try again.
The problem with this idea is that you are assuming that all scholars unanimously believe this translation to be valid, which denies the many scholars outside Protestant / Evangelical circles and even some within. Strong's is a fine reference,but it definitely represents a minority viewpoint within Christianity.
Can you prove any of that? The only translations that have it translated this way are founded and started by...... surprise, surprise... Catholics.
Seems you have the majority vs minority confused.
As I described above, a different term is used when describing Stephen.
NO, THERE ISN'T! How hard is it to understand that the Greek wording is EXACTLY THE SAME in both of these texts?
There are no "different terms" applied.If you want to see what is original, look to the original Greek, not the "definition according to aspen".
I will have to look in to this.
Sure you will. To ensure you actually do, I'll post it.
John 1:14
Καὶ ὁ λόγος σὰρξ ἐγένετο καὶ ἐσκήνωσεν ἐν ἡμῖν, καὶ ἐθεασάμεθα τὴν δόξαν αὐτοῦ, δόξαν ὡς μονογενοῦς παρὰ πατρός,
πλήρης χάριτος καὶ ἀληθείας.
Acts 6:8
Στέφανος δὲ
πλήρης χάριτος καὶ δυνάμεως ἐποίει τέρατα καὶ σημεῖα μεγάλα ἐν τῷ λαῷ.
"full grace"... These are exactly the same. If you want to maintain Christ as sinless and perfect and elevated and blessed especially among people you must also do the same to Stephen (unless, of course, you can admit the Scripture doesn't actually support what you're claiming- then this entire argument goes away).
This "full grace" phraise is NOT in Luke 1:28 anywhere:καὶ εἰσελθὼν πρὸς αὐτὴν εἶπεν· χαῖρε, κεχαριτωμένη, ὁ κύριος μετὰ σοῦ.
So, aspen, you've now seen the Original Greek these were written in. Would you like to call John and Luke liars? Or would you like to admit your translations are fatally biased and flawed and do not support "full of grace"?
I think we tend to read Jesus' and Paul's statements with modern eyes
Ah so when Scripture contradicts your belief you just say it's because of our "modern eyes".