Babylon

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Jerry Huerta

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Revelation’s use of Old Testament allusions—such as those in chapter 18 concerning Babylon (drawn from Isaiah, Jeremiah, and Ezekiel)—does not demand that the new referent (whether Rome, apostate religion, first-century Jerusalem, or another corrupt power) literally fulfill every detail of the original Old Testament subject. This is because apocalyptic literature operates through symbolic intensification, not one-to-one historical repetition. The function of these images is theological rather than strictly literal or historical. Thus, hyperbolic and intensified language such as “the great city that rules over the kings of the earth” or “the merchants of the earth weeping over her” need not be fulfilled in a literal, one-to-one fashion.

Therefore , it is not necessary—within the apocalyptic genre—that first-century Jerusalem must have literally ruled over the kings of the earth or been the exact city mourned by global merchants. To claim that Babylon must be, for example, Protestant liberalism or some future globalist system on the basis of a hyper-literal reading of ‘earthly trade merchants’ imposes expectations onto the text that arise more from external frameworks than from the literary conventions of apocalyptic literature itself.

However—and this is important to acknowledge even as a preterist—this same literary flexibility also applies to Revelation 18:24. While the verse may allude to Jesus’ words in Matthew 23:35 (“so that on you may come all the righteous blood shed on earth”), the apocalyptic form does not require that the destruction of Jerusalem in AD 70 be the exclusive or literal fulfillment of Revelation 18:24.

Ultimately, due to: (1) the interpretive vagueness inherent in apocalyptic language, (2) the lack of clear, internal explanation within the oracle itself, and (3) the genre conventions of Revelation, any claim that Babylon “must be” or “cannot be” a particular referent (e.g., Jerusalem, Rome, or a modern institution) rests primarily on one’s interpretive framework rather than an incontrovertible exegetical conclusion.

The question remains - can I use the olivet discourse to interpret the apocalyptic genre of the revelation or no?
It’s specious to hold that the predicate concerning the entities in apocalyptic genre allows any “literary flexibility,” that it isn’t to be taken literally as “a” historical event in each case. I agree the entities allow for such flexibility, but not the predicate, the actions the entities execute. Your assertion is Idealism, which holds there is no historical fulfillment of the Revelation. You’re failing in preterist’s hermeneutics.

Moreover, the merchants are the exception to such “literary flexibility” concerning the entities in Revelation. If that is not so, you’ll have to provide what the merchants represent, other than merchants, and how this changing interpretation becomes wealthy or rich, a condition that isn’t literal by your standard.

But this is what your assertions lead to, that nothing in the apocalyptic genre allows for “a” literary historical fulfilment, such as the enrichment of the merchants. With such an Idealists’ lens, the merchants are forever becoming rich because of their association with mystery Babylon, which as I related, history does not support. I have a number of books by historians, secular and religious, that vindicate my interpretation if you’re interested.

As to the OD, Britanica defines the apocalyptic genre as:

apocalyptic literature, literary genre that foretells supernaturally inspired cataclysmic events that will transpire at the end of the world. A product of the Judeo-Christian tradition, apocalyptic literature is characteristically pseudonymous; it takes narrative form, employs esoteric language, expresses a pessimistic view of the present, and treats the final events as imminent. See also eschatology. [1]

I have to agree with the scholars that hold the OD as apocalyptic or quasi-apocalyptic in nature.
 

claninja

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It’s specious to hold that the predicate concerning the entities in apocalyptic genre allows any “literary flexibility,” that it isn’t to be taken literally as “a” historical event in each case. I agree the entities allow for such flexibility, but not the predicate, the actions the entities execute. Your assertion is Idealism, which holds there is no historical fulfillment of the Revelation. You’re failing in preterist’s hermeneutics.

Moreover, the merchants are the exception to such “literary flexibility” concerning the entities in Revelation. If that is not so, you’ll have to provide what the merchants represent, other than merchants, and how this changing interpretation becomes wealthy or rich, a condition that isn’t literal by your standard.

But this is what your assertions lead to, that nothing in the apocalyptic genre allows for “a” literary historical fulfilment, such as the enrichment of the merchants. With such an Idealists’ lens, the merchants are forever becoming rich because of their association with mystery Babylon, which as I related, history does not support. I have a number of books by historians, secular and religious, that vindicate my interpretation if you’re interested.

As to the OD, Britanica defines the apocalyptic genre as:

apocalyptic literature, literary genre that foretells supernaturally inspired cataclysmic events that will transpire at the end of the world. A product of the Judeo-Christian tradition, apocalyptic literature is characteristically pseudonymous; it takes narrative form, employs esoteric language, expresses a pessimistic view of the present, and treats the final events as imminent. See also eschatology. [1]

I have to agree with the scholars that hold the OD as apocalyptic or quasi-apocalyptic in nature.

Your distinction between symbolic entities and literal predicates isn’t biblically or literarily sustainable. Apocalyptic literature frequently employs symbolic agents executing symbolic actions — that’s part of the genre. You’re treating the actions as though they must have a one-to-one historical fulfillment, while still admitting the figures can be symbolic. But that split is artificial.

You admit the merchants could be symbolic, yet demand that their becoming rich must be literal. That’s inconsistent. Symbolic characters performing symbolic actions is basic to the apocalyptic form. Your insistence that the predicate must remain literal while the subject may not be is arbitrary and not reflective of how biblical apocalyptic functions.

What I’m saying is that the symbolism in Revelation communicates real historical fulfillment in an hyperbolic and symbolic format—and that’s exactly what Preterism affirms. But if you reject a Preterist framework, especially the approach of interpreting Revelation through the lens of the Olivet Discourse, then Revelation becomes unanchored. Its prophecies, like revelation 17-18 can be applied to anything, at any time, like Protestant liberalism, or the USA, or Islam, etc…….









As for your use of Britannica’s apocalyptic definition, I agree — the Olivet Discourse contains apocalyptic elements. That’s exactly why we should expect figurative language, visionary symbolism, and stylized exaggeration. The genre allows for literary flexibility because it’s not straightforward historical narrative — it communicates real things through heightened imagery.
 

Jerry Huerta

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Your distinction between symbolic entities and literal predicates isn’t biblically or literarily sustainable. Apocalyptic literature frequently employs symbolic agents executing symbolic actions — that’s part of the genre. You’re treating the actions as though they must have a one-to-one historical fulfillment, while still admitting the figures can be symbolic. But that split is artificial.

You admit the merchants could be symbolic, yet demand that their becoming rich must be literal. That’s inconsistent. Symbolic characters performing symbolic actions is basic to the apocalyptic form. Your insistence that the predicate must remain literal while the subject may not be is arbitrary and not reflective of how biblical apocalyptic functions.

What I’m saying is that the symbolism in Revelation communicates real historical fulfillment in an hyperbolic and symbolic format—and that’s exactly what Preterism affirms. But if you reject a Preterist framework, especially the approach of interpreting Revelation through the lens of the Olivet Discourse, then Revelation becomes unanchored. Its prophecies, like revelation 17-18 can be applied to anything, at any time, like Protestant liberalism, or the USA, or Islam, etc…….

As for your use of Britannica’s apocalyptic definition, I agree — the Olivet Discourse contains apocalyptic elements. That’s exactly why we should expect figurative language, visionary symbolism, and stylized exaggeration. The genre allows for literary flexibility because it’s not straightforward historical narrative — it communicates real things through heightened imagery.
I see that you didn’t provide what the merchants represent, other than merchants, and how this flexible symbol, in your estimation, becomes “flexibly” wealthy, which can hardly be promoted as anchored by any stretch of the imagination. And while you’re at it, tell us why, in preterism, the temple in Revelation 11 doesn’t fall under this “flexible symbolism” with “symbolic action”?

Actually, preterism and futurism are remiss in adhering to one of the most essential anchors that help us interpret Revelation, namely the truth that the book represents Christ’s mediation of the New Covenant. We are the temple of God in this age (1 Corinthians 3:16). In Chapter 1, Christ is depicted wearing the accouterments of a high priest amid the seven candlesticks, which illustrates the antitype of the “daily” done under the Old Covenant (Revelation 1:13). We know (or at least Historicists know) that Christ did away with the Old Covenant when he offered his body as the first fruits and anointed the heavenly sanctuary on the seventieth week, conveyed in Daniel 9. So, even if Revelation was given to John before 70 AD, which the best scholars have debunked, it doesn’t matter because Christ had already done away with the Old Covenant some 40 years before 70 AD (Daniel 9:24; 1 Corinthians 15:23; Hebrews 10:9-10). Consequently, the temple in Chapter 11 cannot be LITERAL as in the renderings of preterism and futurism. It seems preterists only hold to their hyperbolic and symbolic interpretation when it suits their fallacious doctrine. Historicists hold the best hermeneutic insofar as they maintain that Revelation’s prophecies pertain to the New Covenant age, not the past age under the Old Covenant, as preterists hold, or a return to the Old Covenant, as in futurism.

I was contemplating as to what was the best expression to use concerning the revelation of the merchants and you helped. The issue of the merchants is not unlike that of the temple; the merchants are an anchor that vindicates the Historicist’s hermeneutic and exposes the other eschatological presuppositions as fuel fit for the fire (1 Corinthians 3:13). Sorry, but prominent proponents of preterism like Ken Gentry and creator of the website Revelation Revolution, Daniel Morais, interpret the “merchants” as literal merchants and their enrichment as the accumulation of literal gold and silver.

When confronted with the historical and hermeneutical hurdles of trying to interpret the harlot Babylon as Jerusalem in Christ’s time, Gentry tries to tie the prophecy to the temple wealth and the land of Judah, with his strange interpretation that “the merchants of the earth.” He thinks preterism has a superior understanding of the noun “earth” as being restricted to the land of Judah. (As Paul prophesied, we are living in the land of fables in our time.) However, this is countered by the evidence that the church in Laodicea is condemned for being lukewarm and for thinking they are rich and increased in goods. So, we have the very audience in John’s time informed that the church in Laodicea conveys the very imagery of the prophecy against the harlot, which supports the idea that “earth” in Revelation 18 must be understood the same way it is when Christ says his Father’s will be done on “earth.” They are the same word. And one has to be blind not to see that we live in the zeitgeist of the church in Laodicea, which supports my published work. I guess it takes that same kind of blindness to think Christ is reigning now! It takes the same crazy thinking to believe Christ reigns WITH a fallen Church! The Church is presented without blemish to Christ, undefiled,

2 Corinthians 11:
1 Would to God ye could bear with me a little in my folly: and indeed bear with me.
2 For I am jealous over you with godly jealousy: for I have espoused you to one husband, that I may present you as a chaste virgin to Christ.

Ephesians 5
27 That he might present it to himself a glorious church, not having spot, or wrinkle, or any such thing; but that it should be holy and without blemish.

Remember, in Matthew 25 the brides’ maids who have oil went into the marriage supper, at the separation of the wheat from the tares. They meet Christ in the air, separated from the foolish virgins and the goats.

As for the OD, thanks for acknowledging it has apocalyptic tendencies, which allows for literary flexibility concerning temporal matters, like Daniel 9 and other chapters, as well as the Revelation of Christ.
 
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Ronald D Milam

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Martin Luther interpreted Daniel’s Little Horn as the papacy that rose amongst the Germanic kingdoms that supplanted Rome at its demise. To take the heat off the papacy, two Jesuit priests, Francisco Ribera (1537- 1591) and Luis de Alcazar (1554-c. 1613),
He was wrong.

To begin, the notion that God sets “up a kingdom, which shall never be destroyed” and that “shall not be left to other people” at Christ’s first advent is untenable in light of Daniel’s prophecies,
Correct

Daniel tells us Christ establishes his kingdom in the days of the feet or the ten toes of the image, or kings/horns, also conveyed in Daniel 7 and Revelation 17, which wasn’t at Christ’s first advent; Christ’s first advent was at the time of the legs of iron. Martin Luther’s interpretation of the little horn conforms to the evidence that it must have risen at the end of the Roman Empire amongst the kingdoms that supplanted it. The head, breast, belly, and legs represented consecutive kingdoms or empires; consequently, Daniel wasn’t talking about Christ’s return and filling the whole earth during the time of the Roman empire but the time of the kingdoms that supplanted Rome and did not embrace one another, but ruled simultaneously. Daniel 2:44 affirms Christ sets up his kingdom with kings that rule concurrently, just like the kings in Revelation 17. There can be no compromise on this issue if we want to interpret Babylon accurately.
And that can not happen until Israel was REBORN, all of the Beasts were Beasts over Israel, in order to bring them unto repentance. God says in Ezekiel 37 that He will see Israel for a time as "Dead Men's Bones" thus they were not an entity unto God, he rent the temple and forsook Israel at Jesus; death, the Church was born and took up the mantle f God to spread the Gospel unto the ends of the world. The MORTAL WOUND was when the Church, who Christ said could not be overcome by the gates of hell, turned Rome from a Beast into a Conveyor Belt of the Gospel. We the church delivered the Mortal Wound seen in Rev. 13. Think about it, God set up Rome for a time such as this, a world power, (All roads lead to Rome) who spoke a common language (Koine Greek) and Subjects were considered Roman Citizens !! Without this dynamic, does anyone think the churches outside of Israel would have ever been established? The Disciples could go where they wanted, preaching the Gospel until the false prophets and oracles started crying to Rome, then the Christians started being burned at the stake etc. But in the end, we overcame the Beast, it has nothing to do with the RCC nor Islam, its all about Nations God brought against Israel in order to make Israel repent before the 70th week End Times finishes. The 10 = Completion, not 10 just like the Church is not only 10 Virgin Brides. The 10 is the Complete E.U. who then makes an Agreement with Israel and THE MANY and then they Conquer Israel in the middle of the week but how so? The AGREEMENT is merely Israel joining the E.U. This angers God , and start up his 70th week. The Pre Trib. Rapture happens at this same point in time. Why was it "out of the Head of the Fourth Beast"? A dad has a son and the boy looks like him right? Now watch the Old Fourth Beast and the New Fourth Beast of the E.U. after the conquer Isral and THE MANY as Dan. 11"40-43 shows they will do, as a matter of fact the only portion they can not conquer is Ammon, Moab and Edom (the Jordanian Mountain Are Israel flees unto in Revelation 12, and Matt. 24 etc.)

Rome, the Fourth Beast over "Israel"

Roman_Empire_Trajan_117AD (13).png

There can be NO BEAST until at least 1948 when Israel is reborn.

The E.U. in Blue and the Nations Dan. 11:40-43 says the E.U. President ala Little Horn/AC conquers, he conquers Israel and many countries to get at her then all of North Africa, now lets look at Son #1 on map.

EU_European_Neighbourhood_Policy_states.svg (7).png

Map-of-the-European-Neighbourhood-Policy(1).png.5e36fd50b70ac69a5a20b67498925669.png

So, when the E.U. (Blue) Conquers the LIGHT BLUE in Turkey and the ORANNGE as in Israel & THE MANY we get Papa and Son. The Little Horn is really just a 5th Beast that arises out of the Fourth Beasts Head meaning its the exact same Land Mass for all intents and purposes.

Matthew 24:
7 For nation shall rise against nation, and kingdom against kingdom: and there shall be famines, and pestilences, and earthquakes, in divers places.
8 All these are the beginning of sorrows.
9 Then shall they deliver you up to be afflicted, and shall kill you: and ye shall be hated of all nations for my name's sake.
10 And then shall many be offended, and shall betray one another, and shall hate one another.
11 And many false prophets shall rise, and shall deceive many.
12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.
13 But he that shall endure unto the end, the same shall be saved.
14 And this gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in all the world for a witness unto all nations; and then shall the end come.
All this is about the Disciples and the 1st Century save vs. 14 (Rapture requirements)