Hi Everyone, This is my first post in a long time. I recently came across this challenge and decided to take it on. Here are the questions and my replies that may help others in their discussions with preterists.
HERE’S TWENTY QUESTIONS FOR FUTURISTS WRITTEN by Charles Meek (who is a preterist):
1. Why have Christians made failed predictions about the end of the world for 2000 years?
Christians are human and I would like to believe that they so look forward to Christ’s return they create scenario’s and try to fit God’s timing within them. While some have made, imo, a false doctrine out of imminence each generation should have had the expectation and possibility that their’s was the generation in which He would return. One generation will actually have that occur.
2. If time means nothing to God, why does God constantly use time-restricted statements about the fulfillment of prophecy—such as: must shortly take place, at hand, near, quickly, soon, last times, last hour, last days, this generation, etc.?
He uses time for our benefit, not His. It is beyond our scope to be able to conceive of eternity as He knows it. With that said, there are two time frames to be aware of. The earthly one and the heavenly one. More about this in question 4.
3. If “no one knows the day or the hour,” why did Jesus frequently insist that his PAROUSIA (Second Coming)—and indeed the fulfillment of all prophecy—would be fulfilled while those living in the first century were still alive (Matthew 10:23; Matthew 16:27-28; Mathew 26:64; Luke 21:22, 28, 32; Revelation 1:1-3; Revelation 22:6, 12, 20)? Was Jesus simply wrong? If so, can we trust Him on other things He said?
The problem with this is that you are seeing them as a single event. They are not. In these passages there are three different comings to recognize. Matt. 23:10 was fulfilled in Matt; 21:2-5 which was a fulfillment of Zech. 9:9. Matt. 16:27 is a prophecy of His Second Coming as depicted in Matt. 24:30-31, vs.28 is referring to the spiritual kingdom that started at His resurrection and began fully at Pentecost. Matt. 26:64 - Here Christ is referencing Dan. 7:13 and is basically telling him that the roles will one day be reversed. Nothing here implies the high priest would be alive. Luke 21: 22, 28, 32 - I will say that this is foretelling of His second coming which hasn’t happened yet. Vs. 28, in context, is speaking of the events in vss. 25-27. Vs. 32 - let’s go back to Matt. 24:34, Christ is not speaking of “this” as being the generation alive at that time. In this passage, when He says “This generation” He is speaking of the generation that sees ALL these prophecies fulfilled, not some of them, not the majority of them, when you see 100% of them!
4. If the teaching that one day is a 1000 yrs, and a 1000 years is as a day to the Lord. . . DOES THAT MEAN?—1000 years in Revelation are a single 24 hour day (2 Peter 3; Revelation 20)?
Really, this answers some of your other questions. To an eternal God who has and will be around trillions of years and more, 2000 years + is really soon, at hand, nigh and any other adjective you want to use. When you’re contemplating prophecies with eternal significance you need to stop seeing it with man’s eye and try to see it from God’s perspective.
5. If any of the New Testament was written after AD 70, why is there no mention anywhere in the New Testament IN THE PAST TENSE about the incredible events surrounding the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in that year?
This is an easy one. The bible is written for Christians or those who will become christians, 70 AD just doesn’t have the prophetic significance you want it to have. It wasn’t the first time Jerusalem and the temple was destroyed nor will it be the last. This destruction of the temple only affected non-believing Jews and helped to spread the gospel to a greater area.
6. If the Great Tribulation is still future to us, why did Jesus tell the first century Christians that they could avoid it by fleeing to the mountains (Matthew 24:16; 21)? And why did the Apostle John tell his readers a few years later that THEY were in the tribulation (Revelation 1:9)?
Again, you’re assuming Christ is speaking to that generation, He is not, He is prophesying to the generation that will see all these things occur. The time-line in these passages don’t line up with what preterists want to believe. The first sign that it is time to flee is the Abomination of Desolation in vs. 15. Historically, what preterists consider this fulfillment to be is years after the siege of Jerusalem started. Jerusalem was indeed surrounded and it would have been impossible for Jews to flee anywhere. If it was there wouldn’t be the death count that high. There is a great difference between daily tribulation and the great tribulation. John was most certainly not speaking of the great trib but the personal tribulations of varying degrees that all christians encounter when dealing with the unbelieving world.
7. If the book of Revelation is for us today, why would John write to the seven churches if it had nothing to do with them? Why would John torture these first-century Christians with impossible and intricate symbolic labyrinths that applied only to people 2,000 years later? Why does Revelation say some 30 times that the events MUST be fulfilled SOON? (Examples: Revelation 1:1-3; 22:6, 12, 20)
As answered before, God’s concept of time must be taken into account. One of the things I find interesting in the preterist view is they get all concerned about “latter day” prophecies extending for a couple thousand years or more, but depending on one’s view of creation the “former” days extended for a minimum of 4000 + yrs. 2000+ is only half the time. I believe God had them sent to seven churches to assure His word would persevere and be handed down through the centuries and also to insure greater circulation amongst the church in general . I think the seven churches knew that many of the prophecies didn’t apply to them because of Rev. 1:19 things in the past, present and future. The present was cps. 1-3, the past is cps. 4-5 and the first part of cp. 12. The future (hereafter) is the rest from cps. 6-22.
8. Why does Hebrews 10:37 say that in a VERY VERY (“very” is there twice in the Greek) LITTLE WHILE Jesus would return and not delay? Were the writer of Hebrews and the other biblical writers that expressed the same thing FALSE PROPHETS?
He is reiterating Hab. 2:3-4. According to my sources, the est. date of this book is 607 bc., nearly 400 years before His first coming. I’m assuming the Jews to whom the author was speaking knew of this time and understood by that, that it probably wouldn’t happen in their lifetime.
9. If the biblical “last days” are in the 21st century, why does Peter and the writer of Hebrews both say the last days were in their time (Acts 2:16-17; Hebrews 1:1-2)?
There is no time frame given for the length of time of the latter days. It seems reasonable to me that if the former days were 4000 yrs. +, then it should come as no surprisem that the latter days consists of thousands of years as well. We are told, however, of what the final seven years will consist of.
10. If the biblical “last days” started in the first century, but continue to this day, why did Peter say the end of all things was at hand, and the judgment was about to begin when he was writing (1 Peter 4:7, 17)? Given Jesus’ condemnation of the Jews of his day, which He said would be in their generation (Matthew 23:29-39), isn’t it logical that this is the Great Judgment of which the New Testament speaks?
I’m assuming that you’re speaking of the GWTJ of Rev. 20. My eschatology is pre-wrath and as such we believe the Great Trib is the earthly trial of 70th week christians, not a judgement per se. The language of vs. 7 is the same as earlier. Another way to look at it is the various authors are speaking forward in faith as Heb. 11: 1,3 shows us.
HERE’S TWENTY QUESTIONS FOR FUTURISTS WRITTEN by Charles Meek (who is a preterist):
1. Why have Christians made failed predictions about the end of the world for 2000 years?
Christians are human and I would like to believe that they so look forward to Christ’s return they create scenario’s and try to fit God’s timing within them. While some have made, imo, a false doctrine out of imminence each generation should have had the expectation and possibility that their’s was the generation in which He would return. One generation will actually have that occur.
2. If time means nothing to God, why does God constantly use time-restricted statements about the fulfillment of prophecy—such as: must shortly take place, at hand, near, quickly, soon, last times, last hour, last days, this generation, etc.?
He uses time for our benefit, not His. It is beyond our scope to be able to conceive of eternity as He knows it. With that said, there are two time frames to be aware of. The earthly one and the heavenly one. More about this in question 4.
3. If “no one knows the day or the hour,” why did Jesus frequently insist that his PAROUSIA (Second Coming)—and indeed the fulfillment of all prophecy—would be fulfilled while those living in the first century were still alive (Matthew 10:23; Matthew 16:27-28; Mathew 26:64; Luke 21:22, 28, 32; Revelation 1:1-3; Revelation 22:6, 12, 20)? Was Jesus simply wrong? If so, can we trust Him on other things He said?
The problem with this is that you are seeing them as a single event. They are not. In these passages there are three different comings to recognize. Matt. 23:10 was fulfilled in Matt; 21:2-5 which was a fulfillment of Zech. 9:9. Matt. 16:27 is a prophecy of His Second Coming as depicted in Matt. 24:30-31, vs.28 is referring to the spiritual kingdom that started at His resurrection and began fully at Pentecost. Matt. 26:64 - Here Christ is referencing Dan. 7:13 and is basically telling him that the roles will one day be reversed. Nothing here implies the high priest would be alive. Luke 21: 22, 28, 32 - I will say that this is foretelling of His second coming which hasn’t happened yet. Vs. 28, in context, is speaking of the events in vss. 25-27. Vs. 32 - let’s go back to Matt. 24:34, Christ is not speaking of “this” as being the generation alive at that time. In this passage, when He says “This generation” He is speaking of the generation that sees ALL these prophecies fulfilled, not some of them, not the majority of them, when you see 100% of them!
4. If the teaching that one day is a 1000 yrs, and a 1000 years is as a day to the Lord. . . DOES THAT MEAN?—1000 years in Revelation are a single 24 hour day (2 Peter 3; Revelation 20)?
Really, this answers some of your other questions. To an eternal God who has and will be around trillions of years and more, 2000 years + is really soon, at hand, nigh and any other adjective you want to use. When you’re contemplating prophecies with eternal significance you need to stop seeing it with man’s eye and try to see it from God’s perspective.
5. If any of the New Testament was written after AD 70, why is there no mention anywhere in the New Testament IN THE PAST TENSE about the incredible events surrounding the destruction of the temple and Jerusalem in that year?
This is an easy one. The bible is written for Christians or those who will become christians, 70 AD just doesn’t have the prophetic significance you want it to have. It wasn’t the first time Jerusalem and the temple was destroyed nor will it be the last. This destruction of the temple only affected non-believing Jews and helped to spread the gospel to a greater area.
6. If the Great Tribulation is still future to us, why did Jesus tell the first century Christians that they could avoid it by fleeing to the mountains (Matthew 24:16; 21)? And why did the Apostle John tell his readers a few years later that THEY were in the tribulation (Revelation 1:9)?
Again, you’re assuming Christ is speaking to that generation, He is not, He is prophesying to the generation that will see all these things occur. The time-line in these passages don’t line up with what preterists want to believe. The first sign that it is time to flee is the Abomination of Desolation in vs. 15. Historically, what preterists consider this fulfillment to be is years after the siege of Jerusalem started. Jerusalem was indeed surrounded and it would have been impossible for Jews to flee anywhere. If it was there wouldn’t be the death count that high. There is a great difference between daily tribulation and the great tribulation. John was most certainly not speaking of the great trib but the personal tribulations of varying degrees that all christians encounter when dealing with the unbelieving world.
7. If the book of Revelation is for us today, why would John write to the seven churches if it had nothing to do with them? Why would John torture these first-century Christians with impossible and intricate symbolic labyrinths that applied only to people 2,000 years later? Why does Revelation say some 30 times that the events MUST be fulfilled SOON? (Examples: Revelation 1:1-3; 22:6, 12, 20)
As answered before, God’s concept of time must be taken into account. One of the things I find interesting in the preterist view is they get all concerned about “latter day” prophecies extending for a couple thousand years or more, but depending on one’s view of creation the “former” days extended for a minimum of 4000 + yrs. 2000+ is only half the time. I believe God had them sent to seven churches to assure His word would persevere and be handed down through the centuries and also to insure greater circulation amongst the church in general . I think the seven churches knew that many of the prophecies didn’t apply to them because of Rev. 1:19 things in the past, present and future. The present was cps. 1-3, the past is cps. 4-5 and the first part of cp. 12. The future (hereafter) is the rest from cps. 6-22.
8. Why does Hebrews 10:37 say that in a VERY VERY (“very” is there twice in the Greek) LITTLE WHILE Jesus would return and not delay? Were the writer of Hebrews and the other biblical writers that expressed the same thing FALSE PROPHETS?
He is reiterating Hab. 2:3-4. According to my sources, the est. date of this book is 607 bc., nearly 400 years before His first coming. I’m assuming the Jews to whom the author was speaking knew of this time and understood by that, that it probably wouldn’t happen in their lifetime.
9. If the biblical “last days” are in the 21st century, why does Peter and the writer of Hebrews both say the last days were in their time (Acts 2:16-17; Hebrews 1:1-2)?
There is no time frame given for the length of time of the latter days. It seems reasonable to me that if the former days were 4000 yrs. +, then it should come as no surprisem that the latter days consists of thousands of years as well. We are told, however, of what the final seven years will consist of.
10. If the biblical “last days” started in the first century, but continue to this day, why did Peter say the end of all things was at hand, and the judgment was about to begin when he was writing (1 Peter 4:7, 17)? Given Jesus’ condemnation of the Jews of his day, which He said would be in their generation (Matthew 23:29-39), isn’t it logical that this is the Great Judgment of which the New Testament speaks?
I’m assuming that you’re speaking of the GWTJ of Rev. 20. My eschatology is pre-wrath and as such we believe the Great Trib is the earthly trial of 70th week christians, not a judgement per se. The language of vs. 7 is the same as earlier. Another way to look at it is the various authors are speaking forward in faith as Heb. 11: 1,3 shows us.
