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What is to be done with me? Idk, but what I do know is that you are the one who equated Christianity with a cult, said you have 'your Jesus' or some crap, and thinks that thinking logically is crazy! I would never ignore Scriptures. What I'm saying is that either your interpretation of them is...

1.) Explain how it wouldn't work. There are only 2 opitions: ~ Christ died for all sins of all men, and lack of ___________ [whatever you say is the prerequisite] is NOT a sin, than there is no penalty for it and all are in heaven ~ Christ died for all sins of all men, and lack of...

But if Jesus died for all sins, is refusal to be redeemed a sin?

So Jesus didn't die for every sin of every man?

Thanks for the answer! Here is the dilemma; the premise; Jesus died for every sin of every man. I asked if unbelief was a sin, and he said that lack of faith is a sin. ~ If lack of faith is NOT a sin, then there is no penalty for it, and therefore everyone goes to heaven ~ If lack of faith...

So.... yes? Everyone is in heaven? A straight answer would be very much appreciated

Ok, so Christ's blood covered all sins of all men, and lack of faith is a sin. So his blood covered the sin that is lack of faith? So, this means everyone is in heaven, right? Then what is the point of having faith? Even if I don't have faith Christ's blood will cover that sin as well.

Ok, so yes. Second question; is unbelief a sin?

That doesn't answer the question; Did Jesus die for every sin of every man?

Oh, so Jesus died for every sin of every man?

Election is easy to understand; it is the accepting of Biblical election that causes people to invent their own terms. Election is God's sovereign choosing of those who will make up His people, not based on foreseen faith [that would be works righteousness; that the only reason God chose you...

So.... everyone else BUT Israel can resist the will of God?

And the definition of the word 'through' will help unjumble this mess.... how? I think the problem is not my comprehension of a word, but rather your comprehension of a verse in its proper context. Oh, trust me; I'm more than willing to get into Romans 9. If you insist.

1.) This is based of a misuse of Romans 5 2.) Even so, you are saying that faith must preceed grace, and if you accept grace you are saved by grace through faith? This makes absolutely zero sense. Please, try reading this with a straight face. This belief has officially left reality. It doesn't...

This is where it gets confusing; which is it? You tell me in one breath that 1.) We are saved by grace 2.) God generated the faith [both of which are TRUE!] and then you go on telling me how WE generate the faith and how it is not by grace! This makes no sense, brother; it cannot be both...

I agree! Apart from the Word of God, [in any facet, be it reading or preaching] there is no salvation. That is correct. But God is the one that gives us ears to hear; which is why some respond to the Gospel and others do not. Why some read the Scriptures and are healed from their sinfulness and...

Ok! We are saved by grace. And what is this 'grace' that is spoken of? What is this gift? It is the gift of faith. It is God graciously changing us from opposing Him, to loving Him. From hating Him to loving Him. And it is this change of heart that allows us to have faith.

Preaching is just the tool. God generates the actual faith. Otherwise, it is works righteousness. [believing that a pastor's work saves you rather than the work of God.]

I have read the whole book of Romans, and nowhere does it teach works righteousness. If ever there was a man who could claim such a thing, it would be Paul, and he explains this. And even if you are correct [which I do not believe you are, but still], that still leaves the other verses...

How about reading Romans 5:10.... where it says that while we yet hated God He reconciled us to Himself. Not we reconciled ourselves to Him. Or Romans 3:24-25, where we are "justified by His grace", not by our faith. or in Hebrews, where it says the "He who has begun a good work in you will...