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For honest translation of 1 Tim. 3:16: Examining the Trinity: 1 Tim. 3:16 God "manifest in the flesh" KJV

The "essence" idea was used at the Council of Nicaea (325 A.D.) as homoousia ("Same substance") The council condemned Arius and, with reluctance on the part of some [actually most], incorporated the nonscriptural word homoousios (“of one substance”) into a creed to signify the absolute equality...

The Encyclopedia Britannica sums it up pretty well: “The Logos which having been in the beginning, and with God, and divine [‘a god’], had entered human life and history as the Word ‘made flesh!’ .... But the identification of Jesus with the Logos was not tantamount to recognizing him as...

Yes, as we have seen above, a large number of highly distinctive descriptions of the Logos by Philo have also been used by John to describe his Logos: Jesus! These terms are used by Philo alone, not by other trinitarian-proposed sources of John’s Logos concept! After discussing all other...

Logos as "a god" and Philo We are told in an article by Dr. Frederick C. Grant of the Union Theological Seminary, New York City, “Another term found in koine [New Testament] Greek and adopted by the early Christians is Logos (Word), meaning...the divine mediator between God and the world...

................................................... The Interlinear page you printed does not disagree with you as I clearly told you also. I am sorry you can't (or refuse to) understand written English.

........................................ Your photocopy from the Interlinear is accurate. Your claims about what it says are completely false. 1. The photocopy from D&M actually proves what the interlinear says. The very bottom of that excerpt shows that Mantey has used an example in Greek...

1. Robertson is incorrect in this aspect. Read my study if you honestly want to know why. Examining the Trinity: DEFinite John 1:1c or Examining the Trinity 2. Jn 1:18 has an accusative noun (theon) instead of the nominative (theos) we are discussing. And John 20:17 also uses the...

I have made two posts to ByGrace which he continues to call lies. One was about a number of mostly trinitarian statements that John 1:1c literally is "and the word was a god" but I made it clear that they don't like that translation and continue to teach "the Word was God" anyway. - post #280...

#300 ByGrace: "And this was why the Jews were persecuting Jesus, because He was doing these things on the Sabbath. But Jesus answered them, “My Father is working until now, and I am working.” This was why the Jews were seeking all the more to kill him, because not only was He breaking the...

Weber’s_Home posted: It's a common Watchtower rule of translation that when a Greek noun is modified by the Greek article "ho" then the noun becomes unique; for example ho theós pertains to the one true God while theós unmodified usually pertains to nondescript gods...

You can lead a donkey to water, but ....

I have carefully quoted and cited the words in my studies. I do not say that, for the most part, these trinitarian scholars believe or teach that John 1:1 intends "The Word was a god." I do quote where some of them say that literally (or grammatically) it can be translated "the Word was a god,"...

Please point out the lie. Instead of pointing out the places you insist are false and using Christian-like terms such as "mistaken,"in error," etc., we just see unkind, personal attack. Please try to discuss as a Christian should. Please carefully, in your own words, point out each "error" I...

One of the exceptions from my DEFinite study which you and most others continue to ignore: Most frequently misused exceptions are nominative nouns with attributive genitive nouns or prepositions: As Dana and Mantey tell us, “The use of prepositions, possessive ... pronouns, and the genitive...

..................................... From my DEF study: Even the trinitarian Greek expert, W. E. Vine, (although, for obvious reasons, he chooses not to accept it as the proper interpretation) admits that the literal translation of John 1:1c is: “a god was the Word”. - p. 490, An Expository...

............................... I already gave you a free lesson about this. If you would be honest enough to carefully read my studies concerning John's use of the grammar of John 1:1c, you would know that even recognized scholars (Robertson; Moule; Dana and Mantey; etc.) acknowledge the...

............................. If you don't carefully study the opposition, you won't understand the subject. John 8:54 has theos modified by a genitive. If you would do your diligent study, you would see that nominatives modified by genitives are exceptions to the rule.

...................................... theos in John 1:1c, like other unmodified, anarthrous nominative count nouns, is properly considered an indefinite noun and translators add an indefinite article ('a' or 'an') unless it is theos in John 1:1c. See links in my previous post. The late Dr...