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Nobody has directly addressed John 17:30 nor 1 Cor 8:6. All I see in return are other verses that supposedly say Jesus is God but actually say no such thing. I've answered to all of them, but folks just like tradition better than truth. Well, all I did was quote a couple of verses that God...

No. I just gave the context to verses 8 & 9. What's wrong with that? We should always consider context. No side slipping. Yes, John does say we must be born again of God's spirit to enter the Kingdom. What it doesn't say is that Jesus is God. Since you seem to know better than I about what's...

The logos is not a person. If you did one ounce of your own research you'd see that. Seriously, about one ounce is all it would take. Perhaps the "he" and "him" refer to God?

No JW. I just believe Jesus when he said the only God was his Father (John 17:3). Paul said the same thing in 1 Cor 8:6. Neither Jesus nor Paul have anything to do with JW. Maybe figure out what Jude 1:25 was actually saying. If it said God was the only savior, then there would be a huge...

So your father put his seed into your mother's egg and your father, not you, was born? That would make your father his father and you nonexistent. I mean if God wasn't born until Mary bore Him, whose seed was it that impregnated Mary? God bore Himself before He was born? See how screwy things...

The only one I could give you is found in Matthew chapter 1. Jesus actually had two fathers; Joseph and God. Well, you, as a born again believer, actually have two fathers also; Mr. GEN2REV Sr. and God. In any case you are not your father and Jesus is not his father either. We both have...

Odd you'd bring up believing in the clear meaning of scripture while denying the simple words Jesus spoke to God; "...that they might know thee the only true God,"

So easy. But they seem to have problems with actual scholarship. They are much more comfortable with tradition.

No need tear out all of John 1. Whatever John 1 says it must conform to John 20:30-31. There we are told that John wrote so that we might believe that Jesus is the son of God that Jesus is the anointed one, the Christ. So even John 1:1 & 1:14 must conform to that end. John had no interest in...

No, God does nothing through Himself. He just does things. Romans 11:36 is not talking about what God has done. It's simply saying that without Him we'd have nothing. God even used a figure of speech here. It is impossible for the same thing, i.e., all things, to be "by," "through," and "to."...

I've explained 1 Tim 3:16 several times. The English translators deliberately changed a word so it would fit with the trinity. I'd have to use a bit of scholarship to show that, so, knowing you're not into scholarship, I'll refrain from doing so. Maybe one of these days your interest will be...

Well, here's what I got out of Isaiah 55: God is willing to forgive even the most villainous of people. Most people are not like that. Isa 55:7, Let the wicked forsake his way, and the unrighteous man his thoughts: and let him return unto the LORD, and he will have mercy upon him; and to our...

I didn't write; 1Cor 8:6, But to us [there is but] one God, the Father, of whom [are] all things, and we in him; and one Lord Jesus Christ, by whom [are] all things, and we by him. Nor did I write; John 17:3, And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus...

Jesus told some Pharisees that tradition makes the word of God of none effect. I guess it's nothing new. Still you'd think what you, I, and a few others here, have said would at least make them re-consider their position. It has to be spiritual forces that makes someone accept that which defies...

And you know that, how? In what other ways am I insincere?

Sorry, but I just don't see the word "Jesus" in either John 1:1 or 1:14. All my Bibles say the "word" or more precisely, the Greek word "logos." G3056 λόγος logos (lo'-ğos) n. 1. a word, something said (including the thought). 2. (by implication) a saying or expression. 3. (by extension) a...

Do you know of any examples in normal language (and there's no indication God did not use normal language) where one person goes "through" themselves to do something. That's a non-sequitur. John 1:1 and John 1:14 are talking about the "word" (Greek logos). No matter how bad we want to change...

Well, Jesus was certainly in the world. Otherwise we'd all be sunk! And Israel certainly rejected him. You can tell that by the crucifixion. To say the world was made "by" Jesus is a misleading translation. The word they translated "by" is the Greek work "dia. G1223 διά dia (d̮iy-a') prep. δι-...

Yes! God saved us through His only begotten son, our living Lord and Savior, Jesus Christ. It reminds me how Joshua, whose name means "Yahweh saved," led Israel from the dessert into the promised land. That must have been some day. But our leaving this earth to meet Jesus in the air and be...

"God is spirit (John 4:24). Jesus is flesh (Luk 24:39). The two don't mix (John 3:6)." These are the verses I quoted. How does that ascribe sin to Jesus? And if it does, it's not me. God authored those verses. Does John 4:24 not say God is spirit? Does Luk 24:39 not say Jesus is flesh? (not to...