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Name one Greek expert that disagrees that that a Greek demonstrative pronoun is used as pronoun when it stands alone and as an adjective when it’s next to a noun. Name one Greek expert, that disagrees “this” acts as an adjective to genea, and “these things” is a stand alone pronoun in Matthew...

Sure, just provide one Greek expert that disagrees In order to validate this claim I mean, I absolutely agree it’s the generation that lives through the events of the Olivet discourse that doesn’t pass away. That’s pretty much implied with the whole “not passing away until these things...

αὕτη (houte; this) is a demonstrative pronoun. When its by itself, its just a standard pronoun whose antecedent is the main noun. When its next to a noun, its an adjective describing that noun. Demonstrative pronouns, particularly ὗτος (houtos), describe things near. In the case of matthew...

I thought covenantee already explained that vs 29 is idiomatic expression for the fall of jerusalem in the same way as similar expressions are used in the OT for the fall of nations? vs 30 starts with "and then" which could mean distant future. That's where the dividing line seems to be drawn...

What? “This” generation definitely means something different than “that” generation, so I have no idea what you are talking about.

According to your framework it doesn’t fit. If you believe Matthew 24:30-31 are required to be absolutely literal, then you need to negotiate with the text. In your instance you seem to be arguing genea cannot mean group of people living at the same time but must instead mean generated from a...

2a and 2b are the usages of 2. That’s how Lexicons work….. Biblical use of men of same stock/family: A.) step in natural descent - 14 generations from Abraham to David B.) metaphorically of men grouped together by a characteristic- this “wicked” or “perverse” generation.

29 or 30? I thought it was 30? Whose spiritual discernment gets to decide when it is actually near? I mean if Jesus said when you see all things (events listed in the Olivet discourse), you WILL know He is near/right at the door, and then apostles in the NT claim it’s near/right at the door...

Based on the multiple definitions of the word the English word, generation, I think it is used as a noun for a group of people living at the same time in the context of Matthew 24. From dictionary.com : the entire body of individuals born and living at about the same time: the postwar...

Hold on a minute. Are you saying definition 2 is different from 2a and 2b, and NOT that 2a and 2b describe the usages of 2?

The spirit didn’t guide the overwhelming majority of translators to translate genea into English as “generation” instead of “race”?

This is an etymological fallacy because a word’s root doesn’t necessarily define how a word is used: “The Etymological Fallacy occurs whenever someone falsely assumes that the meaning of a word can be discovered from its etymology or origins. Example: The word “vise” comes from the Latin...

Wpm quoted 2a: “a. properly, as early as Homer; equivalent to מִשְׁפָּחַה, Genesis 31:3, etc. σῴζεινΡ᾽αχαβην καί τήν γενεάν αὐτῆς, Josephus, Antiquities 5, 1, 5. the several ranks in a natural descent, the successive members of a genealogy: Matthew 1:17 “ I was responding to that specific point.

I think covenantee may be applying definition c per post 819. “c. of things future; then (at length) when the thing under discussion takes place (or shall have taken place)” Not knowing the day nor hour, doesn’t mean the general time frame is unknown - Jesus said , when you see these things...

Welp, you’ve missed the entire point. Not surprising. As a reminder, I am in no way attempting to prove 1 Corinthians 15 fulfilled. The original argument is that we all have to negotiate with the text. All commentators provided were not to support fulfillment. That would be absolutely...

Sure didn’t - men of same family usage is found in 2a Men of same stock usage is found in 2b You only mentioned usage 2a, which you used incorrectly based on the example provided in Matthew 1:17.

ok, so it looks like you've chosen usage 2a - successive member of a genealogy - as how genea ought to be used in matthew 24:34 2. passively, that which has been begotten, men of the same stock, a family; a. properly, as early as Homer; equivalent to מִשְׁפָּחַה, Genesis 31:3, etc. σῴζειν...

From the standpoint that the son of man coming on the clouds must be understood as a literal, physical, and bodily, in vs 30-31, I can completely agree - that didn't happen in the first century. I just struggle with that framework because that means we are back to drawing lines through the text...

I can totally get behind that καὶ τότε in vs 30 could mean something that takes place in the future, and not immediately within the same time frame as vs 29. But then I always run into what comes next: Matthew 24:32-34 Now learn this lessone from the fig tree: As soon as its branches become...

I think I would differentiate between the soul, spirit, and body, with the soul going to hades prior to the first century, the spirit returning to the Lord, and the body to the tomb. But my point was hades - Hades no longer has victory WHEN the mortal puts on immortality. the dead are released...