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I think that it says "reprove" in the kjv also, if I remember correctly...at least, in the 2012 version.

Phl 2:1, If there be therefore any consolation in Christ, if any comfort of love, if any fellowship of the Spirit, if any bowels and mercies, Phl 2:2, Fulfil ye my joy, that ye be likeminded, having the same love, being of one accord, of one mind. Phl 2:3, Let nothing be done through strife or...

I mean, pinpointing the sin so that a man is afflicted in his conscience over it. Is there any other possible meaning? if so, what?

I think that the Holy Spirit convicts everyone of sin, whether they claim to be a Christian or not. If you sin, you can be certain that the Holy Spirit will convict you. Being a "believer in Christ" does not make you exempt. Otherwise, born again believers would be devoid of a healthy...

Blah blah blah... There is no changing you. I'm going to do my best to keep you on Ignore.

I believe that there is a depth of meaning that is lost by not translating it as such. In answer to your question, the one that I carry in my pocket. The apocrypha are not inspired; while they are useful in understanding history.

I don't see any logical progression in your reasoning.

Do you think that this may be the reason why the Holy Spirit only convicts people of sin who believe not (John 16:9)? (because it takes a departure from faith to be able to commit sin?) Iow, it is not that Jesus doesn't convict people who sin because they do believe; but that people who do...

Clearly the correct translation is that God the Father is "a" Spirit. For we see from Ephesians 4:4 that there is one Spirit. For those of us who hold the kjv to be inspired and inerrant, there is only one conclusion. Others may go to other translations to tell them what their itching ears...

If you understand it, by all means give us your teaching on the subject.

@Doug, I don't see the verses that you use to describe the Davidic kingdom as not speaking of a heavenly kingdom.

We simply need to have our feet washed from time to time; and Jesus does this when we confess our sins (walk in the light as He is in the light).

Yes, I have no disagreements. Of course, an underlying theme in your doctrine as you preach it elsewhere is that righteousness isn't practical... So I would simply contend here that it is indeed practical (1 John 3:7, 1 John 3:17-18, Romans 5:19, Matthew 5:6).

Applying Romans 2:28-29 to Romans 4:11 would make the circumcision spoken of be referring to spiritual circumcision. It is always everyone else who has a problem. You cannot see your hand in front of your face.

@marksman, I hate to say it but I have not really seen you teach anything on these boards. You may have a prophetic word that declares you to be a teacher but if you don't actually teach something, what good is that? But I will say that I believe that the prophetic words spoken over you are...

Now, instead of just spouting that as a doctrine, endeavor to understand how that applies to the doctrine of the Trinity. The Father was indeed incarnated; unless you want to say that a 2nd God incarnated or that 1/3 of God incarnated. If you understand the book of Isaiah, I don't think that...

In going to Romans 4:12, you would be neglecting to see what is written in Romans 4:11... Rom 4:11, And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not...

Perhaps from their perspective.

The Father isn't God?

"having no sin" refers to indwelling sin, not practical sins. A person can have indwelling sin and yet indwelling sin does not rule over him (Romans 6:14) so that he commits sins practically; because it (indwelling sin) is rendered dead (Romans 6:6, Galatians 5:24, Romans 7:8).