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Incarnationists...inadertently. They teach the son is actually the Everlasting Father, per Isaiah 9:6. That is not what the verse is saying at all. It says the (present tense)baby/son...shall be the(future tense)... Read it and see for youself.

How big is God's right hand?

No, I was teaching it in homes, churches and prisons...whew!

Is that what Rev 3:12 means? He speaks of his God 4 times in a single verse, even being in heaven for decades at the time? It appears to me the last Ada(redo of the 1st Adam), has a God, yet is God too. This can only make sense if we give Jesus, the individual, back his God, but celebrate him...

Yes, I taught it for 30 plus years.

That was only a manifestation of Jesus for mankind. He can appear any way, everywhere or any size after his resurrection. He ascended to God which is everywhere?...I think not. This all happened after his resurrection when he was GIVEN all power. Prior to that, he had no power of his own.

His only reason to be baptized is to fulfill all righteousness. Here is the layout... Priest offers sacrifice on the brazen altar....Jesus is our sacrifice...fulfilled. Priest cleans up at the brazen altar...Jesus washed(baptized)...fulfilled. Priest lights golden candlesticks...Jesus is the...

You called him the Eternal Son. It teaches begotten son. These are polar opposite in meaning. You and I are begotten and not eternal.

If I may...does it matter what orthodox teachings, teach? After all, nearly all of them cannot even tell us when and where the Church began(Acts 2).

Not at all. I teach Jesus is God by default, not by incarnationism. He was made God after his God(oops, can't resist) resurrected him from the dead. The theme of the Bible is "God through Jesus". Christendom went koo-koo by teaching "God AS Jesus".

I answered it I thought? Can you elaborate a bit? Thanks.

Denominations require them.

He was born in eternity? No way, Mary was not eternal.

Okay. Jesus became our high priest... The old high priest in the tabernacle washed in the brazen laver. When Jesus was baptized, he fulfilled this laver event of the tabernacle. The typology of the laver is water baptism. The priest washed...Jesus washed...we wash...in that order.

Col 2:9. Every bit of what God consists of is inside the body of Jesus per that verse. After his God resurrected him, he was made a quickening spirit per 1 Cor 15, then fully indwelled per Col 2:9 by all of his God, bodily. He was made omnipresent and God by default because of this event...

Because the incarnationist believes the man Christ Jesus was the man/God Christ Jesus, and that God having a God is preposterous.

Jesus was baptized to fulfill all righteousness(the Laver in the temple). I can elaborate if you wish.

What did I miss? Remember, I am steering all our conversation to the OP when possible.

No matter how you slice it, you have God having a God, even if it is just a smidgin' of God's being having a God. ....unless it was play acting?

Were they licensed?