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If you apply your rule about “until” in Matthew 1:25 consistently, then you must also conclude that Michal began having children after her death, because Scripture says: “Michal had no children until the day of her death.” (2 Samuel 6:23) Obviously, she did not start bearing children after she...

The claim you’re responding with assumes I was making an argument about Mary’s marital obligations or her sexual relationship with Joseph. I wasn’t discussing that at all. My point concerned the identities of Jesus’s adelphoi — Joseph, Simon, James, and Judas — and showing that across all four...

But both John 11:1 and John 11:2 simply say “Mary,” Lazarus’s sister — not “Mary of Bethany” and not “Mary Magdalene.” So if you “stick with what Scripture says,” as you’ve told me, then you can’t say Lazarus’s sister Mary is called “Mary of Bethany” or “Mary Magdalene,” because John never...

Both John 11:1 and John 11:2 say “Mary,” Lazarus’s sister — not “Mary of Bethany” or “Mary Magdalene.” John 11:1 introduces Lazarus as an ill man and his sisters as Mary and Martha. John 11:2 identifies which Mary is Lazarus's sister by referencing a distinctive past action, not by giving a...

Both John 11:1 and 11:2 say “Mary,” not “Mary Magdalene.” And you still haven’t answered the other question: Which Gospel event is John referring to in John 11:2?

The only part you still need to answer are what is bolded red below — what precedes that portion are reasons why: In the opening post, I quoted the only two anointing events: Luke 7 and John 12. I also quoted John 11:2 in it as well. If you truly always believed there were actually three...

In the opening post, I quoted the only two anointing events: Luke 7 and John 12. I also quoted John 11:2 in it as well. If you truly always believed there were actually three anointings and that John 11:2 was one of them, you would have addressed that part of my post about all three and said so...

I quoted Luke 7, John 12, and John 11:2 in the opening post. If you truly always believed there were actually three anointings and that John 11:2 was one of them, you would have said so in the very beginning. But, you didn't. You didn’t say there were “more than two anointings” until after I...

Two anointings: Luke 7 and John 12. And John 11:2 isn’t “a lot of scriptures.” If you truly believed there were actually three anointings and that John 11:2 was one of them, you would have said so when I quoted it in my opening post. But, you didn't. Instead, you explicitly acknowledged the only...

My opening post was about the only two anointings using hair in the entire Gospel: Luke 7 and John 12, and I quoted John 11:2. That alone was enough to prompt you to “correct me” if you believed there were actually three anointings and that John 11:2 was one of them. You never did. Instead, you...

I referenced John 11:2 in the opening post, so it has been part of the discussion from the very beginning. And you never argued it was a third distinct anointing event — you explicitly acknowledged only two anointing events, Luke 7 and John 12, saying “two different reasons… two different...

You clipped my argument and responded to fragments instead of the full point. Jesus does not give “an example” in Luke 11:26. He defines the condition of someone who has seven unclean spirits — the spiritual state, not the symptoms or behaviors. Luke then applies that defined condition to Mary...

You’re saying Jesus wasn’t defining a category, but Jesus explicitly gives the meaning of the condition of seven unclean spirits in Luke 11:26: That is a definition of the condition — not symptoms, not behaviors, but the spiritual state of someone with seven unclean spirits. Luke himself...

You keep saying “no category is defined,” but Jesus explicitly defines the condition of seven unclean spirits in Luke 11:26: That is a definition. Not a symptom list, not a medical report — a meaning. You also say Jesus “was not defining a spiritual state,” but that is exactly what He was...

You also say you’re “considering the condition of Mary,” but you’re ignoring the only scriptural definition of the condition Mary had. Luke says she had seven demons, and Jesus has already explained what that condition signifies. Luke doesn’t need to repeat Jesus’ definition because Jesus...

You’re confusing symptoms with category. Jesus wasn’t giving a medical case report; He was defining what the condition of seven unclean spirits means. His description is: “the last state of that person is worse than the first.” That’s not about identical symptoms in every case — it’s the meaning...

Jesus doesn’t say all demon possessions are identical, but He does explain what the condition of seven unclean spirits means: “the last state of that person is worse than the first.” That’s not describing one isolated event; it’s defining the category. It’s Jesus explaining what that condition...

Jesus doesn’t say all demon possessions are identical, but He does explain what happens when seven spirits enter a person: “the last state of that person is worse than the first.” That’s not about one isolated event; it’s a description of what that condition means. So when Luke later says Mary...

You’re not addressing what Jesus actually says in Luke 11:26. Jesus Himself explains what happens when seven spirits enter a person: “the last state of that person is worse than the first.” That is not hypothetical. That is Jesus describing a real spiritual condition. You’re replacing Jesus’...

Luke 11:26 is an actual event description. Jesus is not inventing a hypothetical scenario. He is describing what actually happens when an unclean spirit returns with “seven spirits more wicked than himself.” Jesus says: That is not symbolic. That is not theoretical. That is not imaginary...