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Appealing to Tertullian doesn’t address anything I wrote. I already explained in my opening post that the term adelphos has a broad semantic range in Koine Greek, that the men called Jesus’s adelphoi are never identified as Mary’s sons, and that the Gospels themselves identify their actual...

I already addressed adelphos and the identity of Jesus’s adelphoi in my opening post, and you haven’t responded to any of that evidence. I explained that the term has a broad semantic range in Koine Greek, that the men called Jesus’s adelphoi are never identified as Mary’s sons, and that the...

You don’t need a PhD to read Scripture. The points I raised come directly from the biblical text itself — Joseph’s righteousness, Mary’s innocence, God’s intervention, and the Greek wording of Matthew 1:25. I also directed you to my posts where I addressed Matthew 1:25 in detail, and you still...

Posting another external link still doesn’t address the biblical argument I made. My exercise focused on Joseph’s righteousness, Mary’s innocence, and God’s intervention — and you haven’t engaged any of those Scriptural facts. I also directed you to my posts where I addressed Matthew 1:25 in...

Quoting a few verses and posting a link doesn’t address the argument I made. My exercise was about Joseph’s righteousness, Mary’s innocence, and God’s intervention — not about modern polemics. I also directed you to my posts where I addressed Matthew 1:25 in detail, including the Greek, the...

Listing English translations doesn’t change the fact that Genesis and Matthew are using different languages, different verbs, and different contexts. Genesis uses the Hebrew verb yadaʿ to describe sexual relations that result in conception. Matthew uses the Greek verb ginosko in a legal context...

Listing Genesis verses doesn’t prove that Matthew is using “know” in the same way. Genesis uses the Hebrew verb yadaʿ to describe sexual relations that result in conception. Matthew uses the Greek verb ginosko in a legal context to describe Joseph’s obedience and restraint before the birth of...

The exercise asked you to consider specific biblical facts about Joseph’s righteousness, Mary’s innocence, and God’s intervention. Your reply doesn’t address any of those points. Also, Matthew 1:25 is already addressed in posts #9, #14, and #16 — including the context, the Greek, and how...

Scripture never says Mary had marital intercourse. So no one can claim with certainty that She did, and that leaves room for the possibility that She never did. But even if She remained a lifelong virgin, that would not make Her a “bad wife.” That accusation assumes a definition of marriage that...

If this was all settled for you in college, then the contradictions in your claims shouldn’t have appeared. They’re the reason the discussion wasn’t straightforward. Peace and God bless.

You didn’t mind discussing the topic until we reached the point where your claims were laid out side‑by‑side. Once the contradictions were visible, you didn’t attempt to show how they weren’t contradictions — you simply denied them, dismissed them, or repeated the same claims. That’s why we...

Being in Bethany is not the same as being called “Mary of Bethany.” Scripture describes her as Lazarus’s sister and calls her “Mary.” It never uses the title “Mary of Bethany,” just as it never uses the title “Mary Magdalene” for her. Those titles come from later tradition, not from Luke 10...

You’re still misunderstanding the point. I am not arguing that “until” usually means “up to and beyond.” I am arguing that “until” does not always imply a later reversal. That’s all. The frequency with which “until” implies a change is irrelevant; my argument is not statistical, it’s linguistic...

You’ve asserted Lazarus’s sister is called Mary of Bethany, and earlier you also asserted she was Mary Magdalene. Describing someone and calling someone by a title are not the same thing. Scripture describes her as Lazarus’s sister, and calls her "Mary." It never calls her “Mary of Bethany,” and...

You’re actually reinforcing the point I made. I never argued that “until” always means “up to and beyond.” My argument was that “until” does not always imply a later reversal — and therefore you cannot treat it as a universal rule in Matthew 1:25. Your examples from Luke 23:44, Luke 24:49, and...

You just said “Yes they do,” but then immediately admitted Scripture does not directly say Lazarus’s sister is Mary Magdalene. And Scripture also never directly says she is “Mary of Bethany.” None of the passages you quoted (see below) use either title. John calls her “Mary." The titles you’re...

You’ve asserted Lazarus’s sister is called Mary of Bethany, and earlier you also asserted she was Mary Magdalene. But if it were the storyline, Scripture would actually say it. None of the passages you quoted ever call her “Mary of Bethany” or “Mary Magdalene.” That title isn’t in Luke 10, John...

If it were the storyline, Scripture would actually say it. But John never calls her Mary of Bethany or Mary Magdalene. He only calls her “Mary,” Lazarus’s sister. So appealing to “the storyline” doesn’t work unless the storyline actually contains the details you’re claiming. And it doesn’t. I...

You’re mixing categories. The Catholic doctrines you’re pointing to don’t make Mary a goddess; they underline Her dependence on God, not divinity. The Church is actually obsessive about that distinction. The perpetual virginity and the immaculate conception aren’t divine attributes—they’re...

It’s only “obvious” if you add details Scripture never gives. John never calls her Mary of Bethany or Mary Magdalene. He only calls her “Mary,” Lazarus’s sister. So if you stick with what Scripture says, as you’ve told me, then those added titles aren’t obvious — they’re assumptions. You don’t...