Search results

So are the days of vengeance in Luke 21:22 the same event as the vengeance taking place in 2 Thessalonians 1:8?

So all things which are written won’t be fulfilled when the Luke 22:21 days of vengeance gets fulfilled?

Right, and preterist think Jesus returned in 70AD, which was future to 51-52AD when 2 Thessalonians was written. The end times were the end times of the old, dead, decaying covenant that vanished in 70AD. Let’s look at it like this … A) Luke 21:22 happens 70AD, 2 Thessalonians 1:8 happens...

Right, and some preterist would agree. That all got fulfilled in 70AD, just as Luke 21:22 says, that all things which are written may be fulfilled. I’m not going to argue for the preterist view here, but what you said would support that view and that both Luke 21:22 and 2 Thessalonians 1:8 are...

Luke said these be the days of vengeance, and he wrote that many years after Paul wrote about a coming vengeance. Luke said that all things written may be fulfilled. Without any additional scripture to clarify this they are both talking about the same vengeance or there is a dual fulfillment...

Sure, regardless of when Jerusalem is surrounded by armies and trodden by Gentiles, do you think the days of vengeance in Luke 21:22 is the same vengeance being taken in 2 Thessalonians 1:8?

Well that’s a problem I brought up in the OP, Luke seems to pull from the OT about the days of vengeance yet the days of vengeance in the OT cross references with both Luke 21:22 and 2 Thessalonians 1:8. If they are separate events of vengeance then we should be able to distinguish which OT...

Well at least you are being consistent. Luke said “these be the days of vengeance” so I would think he was including the day of vengeance that Paul wrote about in 2 Thessalonians 1:8, otherwise all things written about the day of vengeance wasn’t fulfilled.

Are there any verses in the OT that use the word vengeance that are specific to only Luke 21:22? I would agree that Daniel 9:26 is talking about 70AD but to me it seems that Luke 21:22 is referring back to a verse that uses the term vengeance, else he might’ve said something like “these be the...

Ok, thanks. It appears you are defining “all things written” very narrowly. When Luke 21:22 says these be the days of vengeance, are you also limiting that to the same narrow definition?

Would you say all things written about the temple were fulfilled in 70AD?

Luke 21:22 For these be the days of vengeance, that all things which are written may be fulfilled. 2 Thessalonians 1:8 In flaming fire taking vengeance on them that know not God, and that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus Christ: Many people place 2 Thessalonians 1:8 as taking place at a...

No strategy, just pointing out to you that nobody knows exactly all the work Jesus did, therefore your statement “It tells me of not knowing at best and confusion at worst” applies to you yourself too.

Ok, do you have a specific list of all the work that was given to Jesus to do? If you don’t supply a specific list then “It tells me of not knowing at best and confusion at worst.”

I would say the work that was finished had to do with the work that God gave Him to do. Jesus was obviously on earth after He rose until He ascended in Acts 1:9 but I’m not sure He was doing work during that time that was given to Him by God to do. What do you think? Is there any more work on...

I agree with you that the OT talks about the millennium without using the term “thousand”. If we agree Jesus was given that work to do, why did He say “I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do” in John 17:4? Jesus said that way before the Premil millennium.

Well, I’ll throw something out there that I’ve been thinking about for some time. John 17:4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do. 5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world...

The wicked hopeless generation of Gentiles, prior to the cross, passed after the cross, at least according to the Amill position.

A great multitude which no man can number of the morally corrupt, unbelieving, without hope Gentles did pass, right? They passed from death to life, right? Which means the statement “this generation shall not pass”, can’t include all the wicked Gentiles, right?

So when Jesus said “this generation shall not pass”, was he talking about the Gentiles or not? Jesus made that statement prior to the cross.