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God has chosen many individuals to reveal His truth, not because of their own good character, but rather for His own good purpose. Do you have a problem with that?

None of that makes them (whether it be Adam or Jesus, or the Potter and the clay) the same. It only makes God's cause in their creation the same as He has done. As I said, you and your picture are not the same. Your picture (and the "images" in His "creation") are only a "likeness", and not...

You are mis-quoting / misunderstanding that verse. Paul is NOT drawing a line in the sand on spiritual gifts in 1 Corinthians 1 - he is extending them "to the end." Yes, that "also." Which is exactly the opposite of what you have been saying. But thanks for pointing it out.

That is just your interpretation of you going against the rest of scripture. It doesn't wash with the complete word of God.

Yes...that is the rest of the story. Just so long as we do not take away from the point made in the OP. Which if I may paraphrase, is that, that was then, and this is now...and just as it would have been wrong for Moses to preach what Christ had for the gentiles, it is also wrong for the church...

You are talking about the things of men, but the subject here is the things of God, the words of God. Which are not defined by whom ever comes along and makes a better case than the majority. On the contrary, that is the opposite of how God works. So, a list of fools only hears what they want...

Nice try, but this is your dodge, not mine. It was you who claimed that no prophets and prophecy have occurred after John/Jesus' command/warning/curse in the book ("this book") of Revelation. But to answer your question: John/Jesus' identification of "this book" as being the limit to the...

Yeah, yeah...words, all words. Which you have selectively chosen to suit your own understanding in translation - and yet the outcome is that you make Adam and Jesus out to be equals. Well, they're not. You even have the audacity to equate them using the term "spirit" among your definitions, as...

People incorrectly assume that the command/warning/curse at the end or the book of Revelation includes the whole bible. But that is not what it says. Other places in the scriptures it refers to books and the scriptures collectively, but in the book of Revelation. It says in particular "this...

No, that is a scriptural violation of John/Jesus' command, saying "this book." For he did not say all scripture.

If that were true [and it's not] only they would have been "the members of one body." Which would make all of us like the animals.

That is not biblical. Adam was not BORN of God, he was "created" in the "image" of God. And there is only One begotten Son of God - only One. But, hey...good fleshing it out with you!

In a manner of speaking, yes: the Way, the Truth, and the Life. But what does that do to prove your claim that Adam had the Holy Spirit?

I suppose the Bible is all of that...and more. But I would have to say, the Bible is mostly a revelation, an "image" as it were, of the life and times of every man, women, and child embodied in two men: Adam, a living being in the flesh, and Jesus, who came in the flesh and became a life-giving...

You are picking out what suits you, as if the scriptures contradicted themselves to say that the Holy Spirit was given to Adam, and even Job, before Christ sent Him. As long as you do not reconcile the word, the error is yours. As for the quote from Job, He did not speak for God, but in his own...

Adam first walked with God in the same spirit, but then In the beginning Adam walked with God. But the breath/spirit that was given him was the same spirit that went on to sin, not a new spirit, and not the spirit of God, which is evident because he sinned. So then, there is a spirit of God...

You are not taking into account God's declaration that His word will not return void. It is not men and their translations or their use of language which God Himself has confounded that have dominion over His word, but God alone who has providence to every generation and tongue. Our differences...

Not just suggesting...I was quoting Paul.

1 Corinthians 15:23 “But euery man in his owne order. Christ the first fruits, afterward they that are Christs, at his comming.” 1611 King James Version (KJV) ...and you don't see where your choice of KJVs states it - not as you have been saying, but just as I said?

Yes. No more are there Jew or gentile, slave or free, male or female, but all are one in Christ Jesus. God does distinguish a difference. Which was why Jesus commented on it, saying, "No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him" Jesus said "other sheep I have which are not of...