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I see. “Our” image is obviously plural - and no possible other explanation is possible, even among the monotheist Hebrews from which it comes - but so is “I.” Doesn’t the Bible condemn calling people fools? Or does that only apply to non-trinitarians?

You do realize Jesus is not even mentioned in John 1:1, right? And John told us his entire Gospel was to prove Jesus was not God incarnate but the Messiah. This means trinitarians who use 1:1 as evidence of their doctrine are going against St John.

I’ve been thinking a lot about this. If the Spirit of God tells you to go West and me to go East, it seems the one who is wrong is the one who says the word of God does not change.

LOL. Seems the singular pronoun “I” means plural to you.

The Genesis quote is dicta compared to the 1C, you shall have no other god's before me.

Unitarianism pre-dates trinitarianism by millennia. Unitarianism or monotheism is what everyone who wrote the Bible believed. This explains why the trinity - the word and the doctrine - is not in Scripture. This explains why all the Epistles differentiate God (who alone is the Father) from Jesus...

No. You may not be playing my game but you are playing a game. You asked a 2 part question. Just because I did not originally use the words “clarify the scope of your question” does not mean that is what I'm saying is a pre-requisite for me to answer your question(s). Make a blessed day.

Right! You got it. Again definition, logic and language usage. The very reason we use certain words is to differentiate ideas that are not the same - because they are different. For theological reasons, you are treating antonyms as synonyms. For instance, in a math equation X + Y = Z, the very...

No, you don’t. You start with your doctrine and attempt to support it by synthesizing SOME verses. For instance, why is Jesus saying his Father is the only true God not good enough for you?

There is no trinity. God is Spirit and his Spirit is holy. This is the attribute of God, not a 3rd being. Also, being united does not make 2 into 1.

I'm not confusing anything. There is no God the Son. The Son of God said his Father is the only true God. That's good enough for me.

The CEV translation reads, "God loved the people of this world so much that he gave his only Son, so that everyone who has faith in him will have eternal life and never really die." In this thread I want to explore 2 questions: If God gave his son, how can Jesus be with God still? Given God...

Mary, if you don’t want to clarify the scope of your question, that is fine. However, that is the silly game you are playing. I trusted that you knew the difference between: A. Answering a question with a question; B. Clarifying what the original question is. I was mistaken; You lack discernment.

Bold claim. If you re-examine your facts, I think you will find that I am correct; that there is no record of the resurrected Jesus, after stating he was GIVEN all authority on Earth and heaven, having then delegated that authority.

The principle of Free Will is at the heart of sin and our criminal justice system. Naturally, the world, particularly the political Left is opposed to this principle and are using a 2-prong strategy. Victimology ‘Science’ Without Free Will, there can be no responsibility for our actions...

That man is NOT totally depraved is seen in the fact that there are now 8 billion people on Earth.

And you think that justifies the entirety of the Marian doctrine?

Non- Sequitor. The original reformers are irrelevant to this thread.

You do know that I am NOT a JW, right?

Words are WHAT’s not WHO’s. Obviously, the word of Wrangler is with Wrangler, the word of Ronald Nolette is with Ronald Nolette and the word of God is with God. Jesus said he does not speak his own words but the words of God, who sent him. God said he would put his words into a prophet he...