I have said many times that he uses the term Israel twice in Romans 9:6, which means he was referring to two different Israels.
Of Course. Where did I dispute that? I never said that you claim there are three mentions of the term Israel. Instead, I maintain that the interpretation you affirm logically requires the insertion of a third meaning of the term Israel --- one that is not present.
Interpretation is like standing on a bridge watching the river flow. Logically, the river as seen from the upstream side, must have continuity with the river as seen from the downstream side. The same is true of a given verse of scripture. Any particular verse of scripture will share continuity with the verse that precedes it and the verse that follows it.
Let's take a look at Romans 9:7, which is downstream of verse 9:6.
"
nor are they all children(1) because they are Abraham’s(2) descendants(3)"
Here the apostle speaks about children, a Patriarch, and descendants.
(1)children
(2)Abraham
(3)descendants.
Could you look at verse 6 to see if we see the same pattern?
For they are not all Israel(1), who are descended(3) from Israel(2).
Here we see the same three elements as in verse 7.
(1)sons
(2)Jacob
(3)descendants
Verse 7 means to say that among all of Abraham's descendants, not every descendant will be considered a "child" with respect to God's promise concerning Abraham's children. Verse 6 means to say that among all of Jacob's descendants, not every descendant will be considered a "son" with respect to God's promise to Jacob.
As we would expect, these two ideas logically follow from Paul's earlier claim that the "adoption as
sons" belongs to his kinsmen of the flesh. Romans 9:4
The interpretation you affirm inserts a completely foreign concept into the text: "spiritual Israel."