He is not the same, in my opinion! There is two princes - one the Messiah, and the other Titus. From my studies, and I have read a lot on this, my position would be the traditional Protestant view over the years.
If meaning Titus, why even mention a prince at all? Why not just say this instead if it is allegedly involving 70 AD?
and the people that shall come shall destroy the city and the sanctuary; and the end thereof shall be with a flood, and unto the end of the war desolations are determined.
And if anyone connects that with 70 AD, they would obviously know that this is meaning the Romans and it is connected with Titus. therefore, it is reduntant if 70 AD is meant, that it needs to also mention a prince that shall come. It's obvious via what history recorded that these people in question, if meaning the Romans, did these things via the commands of a prince. No one thinks they just decided to do these things on their own if meaning 70 AD
IMO, too many interpreters in here are thinking carnally rather than spiritually, in regard to the latter clauses in both verse 26 and 27.
In the book of Daniel, elsewhere when the Hebrew word for destroyed is used, it is never meaning in a literal sense, such as destroying literal cities and literal temples. I'm not arguing that that applies to everything in the OT that uses this same Hebrew word. I'm only meaning in the book of Daniel.
For example. destroy---shachath
Daniel 11:17 He shall also set his face to enter with the strength of his whole kingdom, and upright ones with him; thus shall he do: and he shall give him the daughter of women, corrupting(shachath) her: but she shall not stand on his side, neither be for him.
Daniel 8:24 And his power shall be mighty, but not by his own power: and he shall destroy(shachath) wonderfully, and shall prosper, and practise, and shall destroy(shachath) the mighty and the holy people.
What one should be doing is interpreting some of these things in Daniel 9:26 in the sense Daniel 8:24 is meaning. In the NT the body of Christ equals both a city and a sanctuary. And even though some clearly already know that, they interpret the clause in question in Daniel 9:26 in a literal manner, thus a carnal manner, rather than in a spiritual manner such as the NT does when involving a city and a temple, such as in Revelation 11:1-2, for example. Let's not take that in the literal sense, where I fully agree, but let's take the city and temple meant in Daniel 9:26 in a literal sense, where I disagree entirely. And the reasons why, I already explained above.