I pointed out that Paul, Peter and Mark used the same terminology in regard to the gospel that they or, in the case of Mark, Jesus preached. If they used the same terminology then they were referring to the same gospel. The Holy Spirit, who is the primary author of scripture did not create confusion by inspiring different human authors to use the same terminology for different things. Scripture is consistent.
Paul tells us that there is only one gospel – the gospel of Christ and that any other gospel is a perversion of the gospel of Christ. Anyone who preaches such another gospel is be accursed. (see Gal 1:6-8).
Neither you nor H Richard addressed this issue.
Neither Paul, not Peter, Nor Jesus, nor any other scripture writer declared there were two gospels.
Paul declared there was only one gospel. He gave no exceptions. The gospel was for Jews and Gentiles alike.
In Bethany, before the Last Supper, a woman anoints Jesus and Jesus says:
“Verily I say unto you, Wheresoever this gospel shall be preached throughout the whole world, this also that she hath done shall be spoken of for a memorial of her.” (Mk 14:9).
What was “this gospel” that Jesus spoke of that was to be preached throughout the whole world?
Was it not the same gospel that Jesus had been teaching and Mark chronicling?
Was it not the same gospel that Jesus told the apostles to preach throughout the whole world, to all the nations (Gentiles)? (Mk 16:15, Mt 28:19-20).