Again there is an assumption upon which the interpretation of these verses depends.....the assumption that John 1:1 is an accurate translation of the original Greek....and the meaning of the word “theos”....the primary meaning given by Strongs is...
- “a god or goddess, a general name of deities or divinities.”
It can also mean....
- “whatever can in any respect be likened unto God, or resemble him in any way
- God's representative or viceregent
- of magistrates and judges.”
So, translation bias can twist the meaning of words from one language to another very easily.
When you consult a Greek Interlinear, it is important that the translation be accurate.....so is it? The Greeks did not have a word for a god with no name, so when the “one God” of Israel was mentioned along with others of godlike status, the only way to distinguish him was to use the definite article (THE...”ho”) a little word, but with a very important meaning.
When you consult Interlinear translations you can often see “ho” before many words as it is in English, but using “theos” without the definite article when more than one “theos” is mentioned in a passage, it indicates a difference in the “god” being referred to.....but it is left out to purposely suggest the wrong “god”.
Jesus is rightly called “a god” because all reference to him is without the definite article.....as it is in John 1:1. Only the first reference there is to Yahweh....the second reference has no definite article indicating a divine, godlike person or one whom God authorised to act in his behalf, like the judges in Israel whom Yahweh himself called “gods”. (John 10:31-36) In that passage, Jesus identifies himself as “the son of [the] God” (“ho theos”)
No matter how scripture has been twisted to suggest what it does not say, only those who put in the effort to study the Greek will see what is plainly written, but not plainly translated.
See above...another translation error. That makes no sense as an English translation....the tense is all wrong, but you’ve made an excuse for it below....
Or it is actually written in the tense it was asked....Jesus was stating that he existed before Abraham as “the Word” (logos)....he was God’s spokesman down through mankind’s history. Every time God spoke to sinful man it was through his logos.
In a world ruled by the devil, nothing is as it “seems”.....the great deceiver will operate at the highest level to corrupt and mislead all who swallow his lies, taking down with him all whom he can fool as to the very nature and person of Yahweh, putting another “god” in his place...a clear breach of the first Commandment. (Ex 20:3) The God of Israel was “one” (Deut 6:4) and he has not changed.
Yahweh is the only God and the only Savior....there is just one Almighty God, but there are others called “theos” who are not the Almighty.....these are the ones authorised by him to act in his behalf. Jesus is said to be “God’s holy servant”......he is God’s High Priest.....and he is also a savior, sent by God in that capacity. The one sent by the Savior is also a savior. (Judges 3:15) It is not an exclusive title just as “Lord”is not an exclusive title.
Jesus said we must “know” this God AND the one whom he sent (John 17:3)....we are not instructed to know a trinity god but the persons who are in union with one another....Father and son who constructed all that exists. God’s “Master Worker” was by his Father’s side as indicated in Prov 8:30-32.
He is the “us” and “our” in Genesis 1:26. He was the very first of God’s creations. (Col 1:15-17; Rev 3:14)
It does not demean him in any way to view him as the Scriptures portray him, and how he portrayed himself.
Jesus has a God...even in heaven. (Rev 3:12) God does not worship himself....