A Study on the Book of James

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H. Richard

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In a Sunday School class on September 15, 2013, a statement made by James in the book of James was referenced.

James 2:20 21
20 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead?

No one in the class disagreed with this statement but I should have. I do not believe that a statement made by James to the Jews who were under the law of Moses applies to us today who are under grace. I do not believe the book of James was written to both the Jews under law (James 1:1) and Gentiles who are not under the law. If it was then the Holy Spirit was in error when He had James write chapter 1, verse 1. This verse, in plain words, tell us who the book was written to. To apply what is said in James to those under grace is, in my opinion, a false teaching.

I hope this is not taken the wrong way. It is not intended to offend anyone. These are my personal thoughts based on what the scriptures actually say and put in this study.

The old saying that James and Paul were teaching the same thing, or that the word “works” each used do not mean the same thing, just doesn’t get it for me. One must understand that Paul addressed his letters to the Gentile churches he founded under the gospel of grace. James wrote his letter to the Jews who were scattered over the other countries (James 1:1). James’ letter was not addressed to the same churches that Paul’s letters were addressed

The study: Was James confused? Or was he still preaching the Gospel of the Kingdom, which included the Law?

James 2:20 21
20 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?
(NKJ)

FACT! No, Abraham was not! according to the scriptures He was accounted righteous (JUSTIFIED) before God several years earlier, BEFORE the birth of Isaac, and before he had done anything to "prove" his faith in God.

Genesis 15:4 6

4 And behold, the word of the LORD came to him, saying, "This one shall not be your heir, but one who will come from your own body shall be your heir."
5 Then He brought him outside and said, "Look now toward heaven, and count the stars if you are able to number them." And He said to him, "So shall your descendants be."
6 And he believed in the LORD, and He accounted it to him for righteousness.
(NKJ)

FACT! Not only that, but God accounted him righteous solely for his faith in His Promises, and not by anything that he did. There is nothing in Genesis 15 that mentions any works that Abraham did. Paul accurately reports this. It seems that James did not consider the account in Genesis 15. It was not until Genesis 22, many years after Isaac was born, when Abraham was well over 100 years old, that he agreed to offer Isaac.

James writes:
22 You see that his faith and his actions were working together, and his faith was made complete by what he did.
23 And the scripture was fulfilled that says, "Abraham believed God, and it was credited to him as righteousness," and he was called God's friend.
24 You see that a person is justified by what he does and not by faith alone.

FACT! Neither of those last two statements jives with the Genesis 15:4 6 account. Nowhere does the OT Scripture say that Abraham "was called God's friend" BECAUSE he was willing to offer up his son Isaac. In Isaiah 41:8 it states that God called Abraham His friend but nowhere in the context of the chapter does He say it was because Abraham offered up his son Isaac.

FACT! What James wrote, as shown above, is a direct contradiction of the Gospel that Paul taught and the account given in Genesis 15:4 6. Abraham was righteous before God solely because he believed God’s promises.

In my opinion the book of James is devoid of the gospel of grace as taught by Paul. However, it was completely compatible with the law of Moses. Since the word of God has to be based on truth, I find the book of James is not meant to be used as a book directed to the grace church. It is only truth to those under the Law of Moses, the Jews.

Here are some more facts that support my opinion. I find them interesting.

1. The word “Law” is found in 18 places
2. The word “grace” is found in 2 places
3. The word “Christ” is found in 2 places
4. The word “Justified” is found in 2 place with the words “by works” after them
5. The words “by faith” is found 1 time (justified by works and not by faith only)
6. The word “cross” is not found
7. The word “reconciled” is not found
8. The word “sanctified” is not found
9. The word “saved” is not found
10. The words “in Christ” are not found
11. The shed blood of Jesus on the cross is not mentioned.

Romans 4:1 7 Abraham Justified by Faith.
1 What then shall we say that Abraham our father has found according to the flesh?
2 For if Abraham was justified by works, he has something to boast about, but not before God.
3 For what does the Scripture say? "Abraham believed God, and it was accounted to him for righteousness."
4 Now to him who works, the wages are not counted as grace but as debt.

David Celebrates the Same Truth

5 But to him who does not work but believes on Him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is accounted for righteousness,
6 just as David also describes the blessedness of the man to whom God imputes righteousness apart from works:
7 "Blessed are those whose lawless deeds are forgiven, And whose sins are covered;
NKJV
 

Nomad

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No, James was not confused. There is no contradiction between James and Paul. Observe:

Jas 2:18 But someone will say, "You have faith and I have works." Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.

Eph 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God,
Eph 2:9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
Eph 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

Faith is the root, works are the fruit.
 

Deborah_

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James begins his section on faith and works with a question:
"What good is it, my brothers, if someone claims to have faith but has no deeds? Can such faith save them?" (James 2:14)

Why would he ask such a question, unless he and his readers believed in salvation by faith?

The issue being addressed is not whether salvation is by faith or by works, but whether it is by "faith with works" or "faith without works".
 

H. Richard

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No, James was not confused. There is no contradiction between James and Paul. Observe:

Jas 2:18 But someone will say, "You have faith and I have works." Show me your faith apart from your works, and I will show you my faith by my works.

Eph 2:8 For by grace you have been saved through faith. And this is not your own doing; it is the gift of God,
Eph 2:9 not a result of works, so that no one may boast.
Eph 2:10 For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand, that we should walk in them.

Faith is the root, works are the fruit.
***

Define the works.
 
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skypair

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Define the works.
My understanding is that the "works" is repentance to God in the name of Jesus Christ, Acts 2:38 - which is simple obedience. And so I say, "Should a man obey God or man?"

If Abram hadn't obeyed God in leaving Ur, he would not have had faith in God b/c he would not have received the promises that he BELIEVED God would give him. This is like many people's faith: They BELIEVE God's promise to save them but, without obeying/repenting, they won't have received the promise and will simply be hoping to receive it one day. :(

skypair
 

H. Richard

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I take issue with what has been said in the replies. The religious define there own works that they feel they have to do as the works required. In other words they are doing what they feel will earn them points in Heaven. The children of God do what they are lead to do by the Holy Spirit. Most do not even know that what they do is for God.

Matt 6:1-4
6 "Take heed that you do not do your charitable deeds before men, to be seen by them. Otherwise you have no reward from your Father in heaven.
2 Therefore, when you do a charitable deed, do not sound a trumpet before you as the hypocrites do in the synagogues and in the streets, that they may have glory from men. Assuredly, I say to you, they have their reward.
3 But when you do a charitable deed, do not let your left hand know what your right hand is doing,
4 that your charitable deed may be in secret; and your Father who sees in secret will Himself reward you openly.
NKJV

Perhaps James should have listened because it would seem he is bragging about his works.
 
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H. Richard

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My understanding is that the "works" is repentance to God in the name of Jesus Christ, Acts 2:38 - which is simple obedience. And so I say, "Should a man obey God or man?"

If Abram hadn't obeyed God in leaving Ur, he would not have had faith in God b/c he would not have received the promises that he BELIEVED God would give him. This is like many people's faith: They BELIEVE God's promise to save them but, without obeying/repenting, they won't have received the promise and will simply be hoping to receive it one day. :(

skypair
***

Are you saying that keeping commandments are the same as charitable deeds?
 
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bbyrd009

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which included the Law?
the definition of Law here is hardly communal either, i guess. What Law? How do you define law?

*Marijuana is illegal, against the "law"
*Marijuana, hemp contains basically everything you need to produce and consume, cures _________, full of Omega 3, Ford made a car with it, and powered the car with it, etc

which one of these is a "Law?"
FACT! No, Abraham was not! according to the scriptures He was accounted righteous (JUSTIFIED) before God several years earlier, BEFORE the birth of Isaac, and before he had done anything to "prove" his faith in God.
oh, he proved his "faith" just fine imo, when he slept with Hagar i guess lol

iow note how the actions are not lining up with the declarations in that passage, and be advised accordingly; they are not unintentional mis statements
 

Truth

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***

Define the works.

I Agree with Nomad! What type of works did our Savior do, now we know that when He fed the 5000, was it seen by men, yes, and when He fed the 4000 it was also seen, at every work it was seen by men. But we are instructed to do our charitable work as not to be seen by man. when we support a ministry do we do that in secret, no! as every on can see you place a contribution into the plate, Witnessing is a work, Praying for a person in public is a work, giving money to a stranger that you think is in need, Is a work. But taking time to search for those in need and finding a way to help, without anyone knowing, is also the work we should be doing. And Without Faith would we even try, No, we would be without God and Savior, and be as the world turning our back's, with No regard for people's need's!
Without Faith!! which is having an understanding of Our Savior's Love how would we ever be driven to help others, weather with food, clothing, Financial need's, taking time to visit those that are sick, or in prison, These last work's I just described came right out of our Savior's mouth in Matthew. Yes Works are the Fruit of Faith through Salvation.
 
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H. Richard

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If you are not going to discuss the FACTS brought out in the OP then why are you on this thread?
 

Ernest T. Bass

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Paul in Rom 4 is saying works without faith cannot saved.
James in James 2 is saying faith without works cannot save.


Therefore it takes BOTH faith and obedient works in doing God's will to be saved. James and Paul agree on this:

James 2-------works>>>>>>>>>>>>>>justify (James)
Rom 6-------obey from heart>>>>>>>>>freed from sin/justified (Paul)
 

bbyrd009

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If you are not going to discuss the FACTS brought out in the OP then why are you on this thread?
easy, bc now your opinion has been made into "fact" i guess
I find the book of James
well, you lost the Book maybe, and have not found "not all who are born Israel are of Israel" yet
maybe that doesn't apply to you either? at least i notice that you do not comment on it. ever.

Matthew 7:19 Every tree that doesn't produce good fruit is cut down and thrown into the fire.
 
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Ac28

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I agree that James was devoid of grace. That is easily seen, since the first verse in James says he was writing to the 12 tribes of the House of Israel. Nothing said about Gentiles and, where the Bible is silent, we also must be silent. Since Israel will ALWAYS be under the law, they will never be under grace. The only purpose of the New Covenant will be to put the law in Israel's inward parts, and enable them to love and keep the law easily.

During the entire book of Acts, there was only a tiny bit of grace for the Gentile church. In the Acts church, the Gentiles were a inferior subspecies compared to Israel. Israel still had everything (Rom 9:4) and the Gentiles had essentially nothing except a hope of the rapture, to be resurrected, meet Christ at His 2nd Coming in the air, and return with Him to the earth. Their future calling was the New Jerusalem (Gal 4:26), which is not Heaven. It comes down out of Heaven and docks on the New Earth. Therefore, there's no way Christ was going to take them to Heaven. God forbid!!

During all of Acts, the Gentiles were under 4 ordinances, plus others like water baptism, the Lord's supper, etc. Although they were given more grace than Israel, they still weren't under pure grace. Also, they were grafted into Israel and were, therefore, part of Israel. There was not a Gentile church during all of Acts. Israel was partially blinded in Rom 11:25, but they were still perking and Paul was still going to the Jew first ant the very end of grace. Also, Paul was still healing in Acts 28, which is further proof that Israel had not yet been set aside.

In acts 28:25-28, Israel was completely blinded by the 7th and last pronouncement, in the Bible, of Isa 6:9-10, and were completely set aside, along with everything associated with them, like the Gifts of the Spirit, the Acts church, the rapture, you name it. Paul then wrote 7 new epistles. A brand new church was started, which, unlike any other people in history, have a calling of spending eternity in Heaven. Only since Ac 28:28, have we Gentiles had pure grace. ALL of the ordinances we were under in Acts are now done away with - Col 2:14. Also, the church today is nearly a pure Gentile church (except for those few so-called Jews that have believed 1Cor 15:1-4 and Eph 2:8-9 and were converted), whereas the church in Acts was a pure Jewish church, with some Gentiles grafted in for the sole purpose of provoking Israel to jealousy and grafting them into Israel, so they might repent and accept Christ
 
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Enoch111

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I agree that James was devoid of grace.
Where did you come up with this notion? Kindly listen to James:

But he giveth more grace. Wherefore he saith, God resisteth the proud, but giveth grace unto the humble. Submit yourselves therefore to God. Resist the devil, and he will flee from you. (James 4:6,7)
 
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BreadOfLife

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In a Sunday School class on September 15, 2013, a statement made by James in the book of James was referenced.
James 2:20 21
20 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead?
No one in the class disagreed with this statement but I should have. I do not believe that a statement made by James to the Jews who were under the law of Moses applies to us today who are under grace. I do not believe the book of James was written to both the Jews under law (James 1:1) and Gentiles who are not under the law. If it was then the Holy Spirit was in error when He had James write chapter 1, verse 1. This verse, in plain words, tell us who the book was written to. To apply what is said in James to those under grace is, in my opinion, a false teaching.
The ONE problem with your post is that James was writing to CHRISTIANS - who just happened to be Jews.

In James 5, we read where James gives instructions to these people. He tells then that if a person is sick - they should call for the PRESBYTERS of the CHURCH.

So, your OP is based on a false premise . . .
 
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Hidden In Him

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I hope this is not taken the wrong way. It is not intended to offend anyone. These are my personal thoughts based on what the scriptures actually say and put in this study.

Greetings, H. Richard. About this, I personally am not offended at all. Thought I'd make that clear from the outset, and I hope you don't find my comments offensive either. I'd be curious to what your responses are.
James 2:20 21
20 But do you want to know, O foolish man, that faith without works is dead?
21 Was not Abraham our father justified by works when he offered Isaac his son on the altar?
(NKJ)

FACT! No, Abraham was not! according to the scriptures He was accounted righteous (JUSTIFIED) before God several years earlier, BEFORE the birth of Isaac, and before he had done anything to "prove" his faith in God.

Ok, the first thing that comes to mind here is that you are inferring the epistle of James should be non-Canonical. Your argument is more than simply saying it was written to the Jews under Law. You are saying it is in error, and therefore fraudulent. This raises the question in my mind as to why the early church including the apostles would have encouraged saving and honoring this epistle, since he was obviously teaching a blatant falsehood here.
Genesis 15:4 6

4 And behold, the word of the LORD came to him, saying, "This one shall not be your heir, but one who will come from your own body shall be your heir."
5 Then He brought him outside and said, "Look now toward heaven, and count the stars if you are able to number them." And He said to him, "So shall your descendants be."
6 And he believed in the LORD, and He accounted it to him for righteousness.
(NKJ)

FACT! Not only that, but God accounted him righteous solely for his faith in His Promises, and not by anything that he did. There is nothing in Genesis 15 that mentions any works that Abraham did. Paul accurately reports this. It seems that James did not consider the account in Genesis 15. It was not until Genesis 22, many years after Isaac was born, when Abraham was well over 100 years old, that he agreed to offer Isaac.

Ok, now what you are pointing out here in your last two lines is accurate, but James' argument was this: God accounted Abraham's faith unto him as righteousness, which means that although he had not yet committed any notable righteous acts, God accounted such acts unto him (i.e. credited them unto him) because He knew Abraham believed Him, and would therefore obediently do whatever He asked when the time came. This is what James was teaching in James 2:14-26. For those who truly believe in Jesus Christ, that faith will at some point manifest itself in actions that prove they truly do.

So for starters, why do you find a problem with this theology?

Blessings in Christ,
Hidden In Him
 

Enoch111

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The ONE problem with your post is that James was writing to CHRISTIANS - who just happened to be Jews.

In James 5, we read where James gives instructions to these people. He tells then that if a person is sick - they should call for the PRESBYTERS of the CHURCH.

So, your OP is based on a false premise . . .
You are absolutely correct. Which means we are in agreement some of the time.

One could say that James was addressing Hebrew Christians, just as Paul (in Hebrews) and Peter (in his epistles) were also addressing Hebrew Christians. But the messages and teachings are for all Christians, Jew or Gentile. We should keep in mind that there were thousands of believing Jews in the 1st century, even though Israel -- by and large -- rejected its Messiah.