David in NJ
Well-Known Member
i hope your kidding!!!
Because you, again, just added to the very words of GOD
Quickly turn your heart back to the LORD Jesus Christ = Proverbs 30:5-6
A Textual Challenge to the “Mary and Joseph Had Later Relations” Position
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Because you, again, just added to the very words of GOD
Quickly turn your heart back to the LORD Jesus Christ = Proverbs 30:5-6
BillTaylor
New Member
That response doesn't explain how I'm reading Mary never consummated the marriage into Luke's narrative, nor address my argument for why Jesus's adelphoi weren't His siblings in this thread: Jesus’s Adelphoi: Scripture and Early Christian Testimony.
BillTaylor
New Member
Sorry, L must have mixed posters and thought you took the Catholic position of etemal virginity. Xin loi.
Shalom
No you didn't mix up posters. You said that I'm reading Mary never consummated the marriage into Luke's narrative, but you haven't shown how, nor addressed my argument for why Jesus's adelphoi weren't His siblings in this thread: Jesus’s Adelphoi: Scripture and Early Christian Testimony.
BillTaylor
New Member
You said you erred in mixing up posters, but you quoted my opening post and said that I'm reading Mary never consummated the marriage into Luke's narrative. That's why I said you didn't err in mixing up posters. Did you mean to say that you erred in asserting that I'm reading Mary never consummated the marriage into Luke's narrative?
And, did you read my argument for why Jesus's adelphoi weren't His siblings in this thread: Jesus’s Adelphoi: Scripture and Early Christian Testimony?
Ronald Nolette
Well-Known Member
They are! For until shows a change in event or thought or action from one position to another. but like all other hard fast rules, there are limited exceptions, like the exception of Michal. These are very very rare and do not upset the rule. You are grasping at straws to defend the undefensible.
You need to prove that Matt. 1:25 means Jospeh never engaged in sex with Mary.
YOu are the one proposing that until here does not mean its normal, natural, common and wide usage! So it is incumbent on you to show why!
Even you understand this:
The kids will not go outside to play until it stops raining. You knw it means once it stops raining, the kids will go outside to play. If you do not, you need to go back to primary grammar classes to learn basic English understanding.
From Cambridge dictionary: all similar constructs as Matt. something took place until something else happened then the new thing began.
not before a particular time or event:
We didn't eat until past midnight.
See more
Fewer examples
- She waited until her coffee had cooled down before taking a sip.
- We didn't arrive at our hotel until after midnight.
- The photographs will be on exhibition until the end of the month.
- You make wine by leaving grape juice to ferment until all the sugar has turned to alcohol.
- You'll have to wait until your next birthday for a new bike.
You're once again proving my point.
A few posts ago you argued that the definition of "until" settled the matter.
Now you're arguing that the context settles the matter.
Those are not the same argument.
I've never denied that "until" marks a boundary. Nor have I denied that the immediate action under discussion is Joseph not knowing Mary.
What I've challenged is your claim that Matthew 1:25, by itself, proves Joseph and Mary later had sexual relations.
The problem is that many of your examples either explicitly describe what happens after the boundary or the later action is necessarily implied by the context:
- The rain stops, then the children go outside.
- The coffee cools, then she drinks it.
- Midnight arrives, then we arrive at the hotel.
For example:
"The photographs will be on exhibition until the end of the month."
That sentence tells us what is true up to a particular point. It does not tell us what happens afterward.
Likewise, Matthew 1:25 tells us what did not happen before Jesus' birth:
"Joseph knew her not until she had brought forth her son."
And Matthew's concern in the immediate context is not Joseph and Mary's future marital relations. Matthew is explaining the virginal conception of Jesus.
So we're back to the same question:
"He knew her not until she had brought forth her son."
Where does Matthew then say:
"And afterward Joseph knew her"?
He doesn't.
Therefore the verse unquestionably tells us what did not happen before Jesus' birth. Whether marital relations occurred afterward is something you infer. It is not something Matthew explicitly states.
And since you're now appealing to context, perhaps you'll finally answer the question from Luke 1:
If Mary expected ordinary marital relations with Joseph and therefore ordinary conception in the future, why does She ask:
"How shall this occur, since I know not man?"
And why does Gabriel answer by speaking of divine conception, Elizabeth's miraculous conception, and:
"For with God nothing shall be impossible."
If Mary's concern was simply that she had not yet had relations with Joseph, Gabriel's answer seems strangely elaborate. Why point to another miraculous conception at all?
That is the contextual question I've been asking. I don't think Matthew 1:25 settles it by itself.
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