Proverbs 3:33 NIV - "The LORD's curse is on the house of the wicked, but he blesses the home of the righteous."
This passage does not refer to Adam or his transgression in the garden, nor does it refer to a general curse upon mankind. This passage is about how God makes a difference between the lives of the wicked and the righteous, written by the king of Israel, within the covenant of Law.
Rather than put quote formating, I'll just leave these in the body . . .
Lamentations 3:65 NKJV - "Give them a veiled heart; Your curse be upon them!"
Same as above . . . nothing about Adam, nothing about Mankind, nothing about his transgression,or 'God's intent to make everyone sinners'.
Lamentations 3:62-65
62) The lips of those that rose up against me, and their device against me all the day.
63) Behold their sitting down, and their rising up; I am their musick.
64) Render unto them a recompence, O LORD, according to the work of their hands.
65) Give them sorrow of heart, thy curse unto them.
You are taking this completely out of context.
Galatians 3:10 NLT - "But those who depend on the law to make them right with God are under his curse, for the Scriptures say, "Cursed is everyone who does not observe and obey all the commands that are written in God's Book of the Law."
The curse is from the Law, not Adam's transgression. So here again, this is about Israel in the keeping or breaking of their covenant. Out of context.
Galatians 3:22 NET - "But the scripture imprisoned everything and everyone under sin so that the promise could be given - because of the faithfulness of Jesus Christ - to those who believe."
Nothing about a curse, nor Adam, his transgression, or 'God's intent to make everyone sinners'.
Galatians 4:3 NIV - "So also, when we were underage, we were in slavery under the elemental spiritual forces of the world."
Same as above . . .
1 Corinthians 16:22 NLT - "If anyone does not love the Lord, that person is cursed. Our Lord, come!"
I'm curious, as I'm seeing you are "cherry picking" translations in this post, what the literal says.
1 Corinthians 16:22
22) If any man love not the Lord Jesus Christ, let him be Anathema Maranatha.
OK, Paul wrote, according to the King James, let him be accursed. In the NLT, it shows, that person is cursed.
I'll check the Greek, does it matter?
So here it agrees with the KJV, "let him be". A small matter. Again, is it important? It is to me.
2 Corinthians 3:14 NLT - "But the people's minds were hardened, and to this day whenever the old covenant is being read, the same veil covers their minds so they cannot understand the truth. And this veil can be removed only by believing in Christ."
No curse, no Adam, no humanity . . . this passage is about the Jews, and their response to the hearing of the Law.
Reading through the rest of your list, I'm finding they are like what I found above. None of them are saying what you've stated, that God cursed man to make him a sinner, and that this was God's perfect plan.
None of them say this, outright, even implict, and when I look at the contexts, I'm not seeing it. I'm seeing them all talking about other things.
Would you like to pick one or two and show me exactly how it teaches what you are saying?
Much love!