I did not demolish Mark 16:16 or disannul Acts 2:38. This is what happens when you isolate pet verses, build doctrine on them and then ignore the context and the rest of scripture. You need to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine. Apparently, you are unable to see anything beyond your biased church doctrine.
I see that what I shared with you in post #47 just went right over your head. Jesus
clarifies the first clause with
but he that believeth not shall be damned. If he who believes shall be saved (3:15,16,18,36; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26) then he who believes and is baptized shall be saved as well.
So I will ask you again. If water baptism is absolutely required for salvation, then why did Jesus not mention it in the following verses? (3:15,16,18; 5:24; 6:29,40,47; 11:25,26). What is the one requirement that Jesus mentions 9 different times in each of these complete statements? *BELIEVES. *What happened to baptism? *Hermeneutics.
John 3:18 - He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who (is not water baptized? - NO) does not believe is condemned already, because he has not (been water baptized? - NO) because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Mark 16:16 - He who believes and is baptized will be saved (general cases without making a qualification for the unusual case of someone who believes but is not baptized) but he who does not believe will be condemned. So why the omission of baptized with "does not believe" in Mark 16:16 if Jesus makes baptism absolutely necessary for salvation? Does condemnation rest on a lack of baptism or on a lack of belief? Obviously
not on a lack of baptism. *NOWHERE does the Bible say "baptized or condemned."
In Acts 2:38, "for the remission of sins" does not refer back to both clauses, "you all repent" and "each one of you be baptized," but refers only to the first.
Peter is saying "repent unto the remission of your sins," the same as in Acts 3:19. The clause "each one of you be baptized" is parenthetical. This is exactly what Acts 3:19 teaches except that Peter omits the parenthesis.
*Also compare the fact that these Gentiles in Acts 10:45 received
the gift of the Holy Spirit (compare with Acts 2:38 -
the gift of the Holy Spirit) and this was
BEFORE water baptism (Acts 10:47).
In Acts 10:43 we read
..whoever believes in Him receives remission of sins. Again, these Gentiles received
the gift of the Holy Spirit - Acts 10:45 -
when they believed on the Lord Jesus Christ - Acts 11:17 - (compare with Acts 16:31 -
Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved)
BEFORE water baptism - Acts 10:47. This is referred to as
repentance unto life - Acts 11:18.
*So the only logical conclusion
when properly harmonizing scripture with scripture is that faith in Jesus Christ "implied in genuine repentance" (rather than water baptism) brings the remission of sins and the gift of the Holy Spirit (Luke 24:47; Acts 2:38; 3:19; 5:31; 10:43-47; 11:17,18; 15:8,9; 16:31; 26:18). *Perfect Harmony* :)
In Acts 16:30 - And he brought them out and said,
“Sirs, what must I do to be saved?” 31 So they said,
"Believe on the Lord Jesus Christ, and you will be saved, you and your household." Not believe and get baptized here, but simply believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and you will be saved.