Daniel 9:27 the covenant to be confirmed

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Ronald Nolette

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Well, it could be that we both are a bit off.
However, Jesus did pronounce the New Covenant with His disciples, through the giving of the symbols of the "bread" and the "wine".

Heb. 9
[14] How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
[15] And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.
[16] For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
[17] For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.
[18] Whereupon neither the first testament was dedicated without blood.
[19] For when Moses had spoken every precept to all the people according to the law, he took the blood of calves and of goats, with water, and scarlet wool, and hyssop, and sprinkled both the book, and all the people,
[20] Saying, This is the blood of the testament which God hath enjoined unto you.
[21] Moreover he sprinkled with blood both the tabernacle, and all the vessels of the ministry.
[22] And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.
[23] It was therefore necessary that the patterns of things in the heavens should be purified with these; but the heavenly things themselves with better sacrifices than these.
[24] For Christ is not entered into the holy places made with hands, which are the figures of the true; but into heaven itself, now to appear in the presence of God for us:
[25] Nor yet that he should offer himself often, as the high priest entereth into the holy place every year with blood of others;
[26] For then must he often have suffered since the foundation of the world: but now once in the end of the world hath he appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of himself.
If you are referring to teh New Covenant as wrwitten in Jeremiah 31, He did not establish it.

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
 
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Earburner

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If you are referring to teh New Covenant as wrwitten in Jeremiah 31, He did not establish it.

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
Yes!! The New Covenant is to have faith in Jesus. HE IS the NC. of God to ALL mankind, of which BEGAN from out of Jerusalem.

As you know, Jesus was sent to Israel first, but they as a people REJECTED Him, their own Messiah/Savior.
Therefore, God had no other recourse but to BEGIN His NC with the Gentiles. From out of them, He has established His NEW "nation" of "NEW creatures" called Born Again Saints, of which had never been before.
 

Ronald Nolette

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What prophetic event, do the literal words of Jesus relate to, in this statement of Jesus:
John 2
[18] Then answered the Jews and said unto him, What sign shewest thou unto us, seeing that thou doest these things?
[19] Jesus answered and said unto them, Destroy [desolate] this temple, and in three days I will raise it up.
[20] Then said the Jews, Forty and six years was this temple in building, and wilt thou rear it up in three days?
[21] But he spake of the temple of his body.
Just like it says in verse 21
 

Ronald Nolette

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Yes!! The New Covenant is to have faith in Jesus. HE IS the NC. of God to ALL mankind, of which BEGAN from out of Jerusalem.

As you know, Jesus was sent to Israel first, but they as a people REJECTED Him, their own Messiah/Savior.
Therefore, God had no other recourse but to BEGIN His NC with the Gentiles. From out of them, He has established His NEW "nation" of "NEW creatures" called Born Again Saints, of which had never been before.
That is not what I asked of you. Is the New Covenant the one declared by God in Jer. 31?

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Or do you believe that teh Last Supper, Jesus instituted another and different New Covenant?
 
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Eternally Grateful

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Jesus did confirm a Covenant with his disciples before his death, as well as after His resurrection, who was then seen by them for 40 days.
Jesus did not confirm a covenant with many for one week.

If we are going to attempt to interpret prophecy, We must make sure every thing fits 100 %, We can;t take the fact that Jesus may or may not have confirmed some covenant, and say this is fulfilled. When not everything is involved.
 

Ronald Nolette

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So when did the provision where no one will have to teach their neighbor to know the Lord from the least to the greatest?

When did God write His laws in the hearts of all Jews?

When did God no longer count Jews sins against them?
 

Spiritual Israelite

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If you are referring to teh New Covenant as wrwitten in Jeremiah 31, He did not establish it.

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:

32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:

33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.
Scripture says He did.

Hebrews 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises. 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second. 8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: 9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. 10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: 11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest. 12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more. 13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

First, this passage indicates that Jesus "is the mediator of a better covenant, which WAS ESTABLISHED upon better promises". Better promises than what? The old covenant, of course. Then it proceeds to quote the passage you quoted from Jeremiah 31:31-34. That it sums up that covenant described there by calling it "a new covenant, he hath made the first old". Other translations say that He has made the first (covenant) obsolete. Why don't you let New Testament scripture tell you how to interpret an Old Testament passage instead of trying to interpret it on your own without the New Testament's help? Doing that causes you to contradict what is written in the New Testament.
 

ewq1938

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So when did the provision where no one will have to teach their neighbor to know the Lord from the least to the greatest?

It says, "After those days" not immediately when the new covenant takes effect.

When did God write His laws in the hearts of all Jews?


That isn't going to happen because most Jews reject Jesus.


When did God no longer count Jews sins against them?

It says, "After those days" not immediately when the new covenant takes effect.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Scripture says He did.

Hebrews 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises. 7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second. 8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: 9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. 10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: 11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest. 12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more. 13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

First, this passage indicates that Jesus "is the mediator of a better covenant, which WAS ESTABLISHED upon better promises". Better promises than what? The old covenant, of course. Then it proceeds to quote the passage you quoted from Jeremiah 31:31-34. That it sums up that covenant described there by calling it "a new covenant, he hath made the first old". Other translations say that He has made the first (covenant) obsolete. Why don't you let New Testament scripture tell you how to interpret an Old Testament passage instead of trying to interpret it on your own without the New Testament's help? Doing that causes you to contradict what is written in the New Testament.
So then please show when these things became realities:

Jeremiah 31:31-34

King James Version

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

I believe that He through His blood has enacted teh covenant. but the key word is that He is still a mediator. He is mediating the covenant with Israel still, so it is not in effect but the covenant has been established and the terms laid out.
 

Ronald Nolette

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It says, "After those days" not immediately when the new covenant takes effect.




That isn't going to happen because most Jews reject Jesus.




It says, "After those days" not immediately when the new covenant takes effect.

Jeremiah 31:31-34

King James Version

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Well as the New Covenant is for the people of the houses of Judah (2 tribes) and Israel (10 tribes) it has not gone into effect yet.

It has been established as the terms are laid out and sealed with the blood of Jesus, but none of the terms of the covenant have gone into effect yet.

And Jews get saved in every generation. there are over1000 christian assemblies of Messianic Jews in Israel.

But it will be the 1/3 of the Jews that survuve the tribulation that will receive the full terms of the covenant.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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So then please show when these things became realities:

Jeremiah 31:31-34​

King James Version​

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

I believe that He through His blood has enacted teh covenant. but the key word is that He is still a mediator. He is mediating the covenant with Israel still, so it is not in effect but the covenant has been established and the terms laid out.
I showed you Hebrews 8:6-13 and Jeremiah 31:31-34 is contained within it. What more do you need? It says "he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.". This says it "was established" before that passage was written. But, here you are trying to say that it hasn't been established yet. Why can't you just accept what scripture teaches instead of trying to make it say what you want it to say?
 

Ronald Nolette

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I showed you Hebrews 8:6-13 and Jeremiah 31:31-34 is contained within it. What more do you need? It says "he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.". This says it "was established" before that passage was written. But, here you are trying to say that it hasn't been established yet. Why can't you just accept what scripture teaches instead of trying to make it say what you want it to say?
So show when Jews no longer need a teacher to tell them to know the Lord, for all Jews know Him from the least to the greatest as the Covenant declares WILL happen.
 
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Spiritual Israelite

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So show when Jews no longer need a teacher to tell them to know the Lord, for all Jews know Him from the least to the greatest as the Covenant declares WILL happen.
I can try to do that in a way that you can understand, but shouldn't we just accept what scripture says when it says something has occurred even if we don't fully understand how?

Again, Hebrews 8:6-13, which is about Jeremiah 31:31-34, says that the new covenant WAS ESTABLISHED on better promises than the old covenant. So, it already was put into effect. But, for some reason, you don't want to accept that it WAS ESTABLISHED already. Why? Scripture says it, so believe it. You can try to figure out how it was established later, but for now you should accept that it WAS ESTABLISHED already long ago.

Don't you know that we are saved and have our sins forgiven under the new covenant? How could it not already be in effect?

Matthew 26:28 For this is My blood of the new covenant, which is shed for many for the remission of sins.

So, now I will try to address the text you referenced.

For one thing, you have to be careful how literal you take scripture like this and you need to read the whole thing for context.

Hebrews 8:8 For finding fault with them, he saith, Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, when I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel and with the house of Judah: 9 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day when I took them by the hand to lead them out of the land of Egypt; because they continued not in my covenant, and I regarded them not, saith the Lord. 10 For this is the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel after those days, saith the Lord; I will put my laws into their mind, and write them in their hearts: and I will be to them a God, and they shall be to me a people: 11 And they shall not teach every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for all shall know me, from the least to the greatest.12 For I will be merciful to their unrighteousness, and their sins and their iniquities will I remember no more. 13 In that he saith, A new covenant, he hath made the first old. Now that which decayeth and waxeth old is ready to vanish away.

So, this covenant relates directly to people's sins being forgiven and we know that covenant is the new covenant. You think this is saying it applies to all Jews because of how it is worded. But, is that what it's really saying? Read this prophecy, for example:

Acts 2:15 For these are not drunken, as ye suppose, seeing it is but the third hour of the day. 16 But this is that which was spoken by the prophet Joel; 17 And it shall come to pass in the last days, saith God, I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh: and your sons and your daughters shall prophesy, and your young men shall see visions, and your old men shall dream dreams:

This was the day of Pentecost and Peter was quoting from Joel 2:28-32 and indicating that what was happening on that day was the beginning of the fulfillment of that prophecy (please note: discussing details about that prophecy is not part of the point I'm making here, so please don't try to do that). Notice how it says "I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh". Well, is that meant to be taken literally as if God would pour out His Spirit literally on all people? Clearly not, right? It's talking about all believers only there, not literally all people. The same is the case for Jeremiah 31:33 in that it's only talking about Jewish believers there and not Jewish unbelievers.

As for the Jews no longer needing a teacher to tell them to know the Lord, that is a reference to the fact that once God has poured out His Spirit on you upon salvation, the Holy Spirit becomes your teacher.

John 14:26 26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
 

Ronald Nolette

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Again, Hebrews 8:6-13, which is about Jeremiah 31:31-34, says that the new covenant WAS ESTABLISHED on better promises than the old covenant. So, it already was put into effect. But, for some reason, you don't want to accept that it WAS ESTABLISHED already. Why? Scripture says it, so believe it. You can try to figure out how it was established later, but for now you should accept that it WAS ESTABLISHED already long ago.
Yes it is established. And Jesus is mediating the covenant. If the covenant was in effect, then there is no longer a need for mediation .

See I believe it was established and confirmed so by the blood of Jesus. but bein g established and going into effect are not the same.
So, this covenant relates directly to people's sins being forgiven and we know that covenant is the new covenant. You think this is saying it applies to all Jews because of how it is worded. But, is that what it's really saying? Read this prophecy, for example:
So to you having sin sforgiven is defined as not needing anyone to teach you to know the Lord? Okay then. You seem to have your own dictionary.
This was the day of Pentecost and Peter was quoting from Joel 2:28-32 and indicating that what was happening on that day was the beginning of the fulfillment of that prophecy (please note: discussing details about that prophecy is not part of the point I'm making here, so please don't try to do that). Notice how it says "I will pour out of my Spirit upon all flesh". Well, is that meant to be taken literally as if God would pour out His Spirit literally on all people? Clearly not, right? It's talking about all believers only there, not literally all people. The same is the case for Jeremiah 31:33 in that it's only talking about Jewish believers there and not Jewish unbelievers.
Actually it does not mean the beginning, but a fulfilment in how Jews of Peters day understood how prophecy was fulfilled. Remember the bible was written in a particular society, with people who grew in that society and understood and thought how that society understood things.
As for the Jews no longer needing a teacher to tell them to know the Lord, that is a reference to the fact that once God has poured out His Spirit on you upon salvation, the Holy Spirit becomes your teacher.
So you have redefined the prophecy god uttered!

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord:

God said every Jew from the least to the greatest would know the Lord, but you say it means when someone gets saved they no longer need a teacher, though Paul said teachers are a gift from god!
John 14:26 26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
This was for the Apostles only and not you. Has Jesus had 3 1/2 years of conversation with you personally like He did with the Apostles???????????
 

Ronald Nolette

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As for the Jews no longer needing a teacher to tell them to know the Lord, that is a reference to the fact that once God has poured out His Spirit on you upon salvation, the Holy Spirit becomes your teacher.

John 14:26 26 But the Advocate, the Holy Spirit, whom the Father will send in my name, will teach you all things and will remind you of everything I have said to you.
Well I was born again 50 years ago and had the Spirit poured out on me, so according to your response, I don't need you teaching me anything.
 

Spiritual Israelite

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Yes it is established. And Jesus is mediating the covenant. If the covenant was in effect, then there is no longer a need for mediation .

See I believe it was established and confirmed so by the blood of Jesus. but bein g established and going into effect are not the same.
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So to you having sin sforgiven is defined as not needing anyone to teach you to know the Lord? Okay then. You seem to have your own dictionary.

Actually it does not mean the beginning, but a fulfilment in how Jews of Peters day understood how prophecy was fulfilled. Remember the bible was written in a particular society, with people who grew in that society and understood and thought how that society understood things.

So you have redefined the prophecy god uttered!

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord:

God said every Jew from the least to the greatest would know the Lord, but you say it means when someone gets saved they no longer need a teacher, though Paul said teachers are a gift from god!

This was for the Apostles only and not you. Has Jesus had 3 1/2 years of conversation with you personally like He did with the Apostles???????????
It's clear that you will not understand anything I tell you, so I'm not going to spend any more time on this. I can't really add to what I've already said, anyway. Please ask God for wisdom about this (James 1:5-7).
 

ewq1938

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Jeremiah 31:31-34​

King James Version​

31 Behold, the days come, saith the Lord, that I will make a new covenant with the house of Israel, and with the house of Judah:
32 Not according to the covenant that I made with their fathers in the day that I took them by the hand to bring them out of the land of Egypt; which my covenant they brake, although I was an husband unto them, saith the Lord:
33 But this shall be the covenant that I will make with the house of Israel; After those days, saith the Lord, I will put my law in their inward parts, and write it in their hearts; and will be their God, and they shall be my people.
34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Well as the New Covenant is for the people of the houses of Judah (2 tribes) and Israel (10 tribes) it has not gone into effect yet.

It has been established as the terms are laid out and sealed with the blood of Jesus, but none of the terms of the covenant have gone into effect yet.

And Jews get saved in every generation. there are over1000 christian assemblies of Messianic Jews in Israel.

But it will be the 1/3 of the Jews that survuve the tribulation that will receive the full terms of the covenant.


The covenant began when Christ died.

Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
Heb 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

He IS the mediator of a new covenant. It does not say he would be the mediator of a new covenant.

Heb 9:16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
Heb 9:17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

Christ's death on the cross made the new testament/covenant begin which replaced old testament/covenant.

Heb 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
Heb 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

He IS the mediator of a new covenant. It does not say he would be the mediator of a new covenant.
 
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Ronald Nolette

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The covenant began when Christ died.

Heb 9:14 How much more shall the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to God, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living God?
Heb 9:15 And for this cause he is the mediator of the new testament, that by means of death, for the redemption of the transgressions that were under the first testament, they which are called might receive the promise of eternal inheritance.

He IS the mediator of a new covenant. It does not say he would be the mediator of a new covenant.

Heb 9:16 For where a testament is, there must also of necessity be the death of the testator.
Heb 9:17 For a testament is of force after men are dead: otherwise it is of no strength at all while the testator liveth.

Christ's death on the cross made the new testament/covenant begin which replaced old testament/covenant.

Heb 8:6 But now hath he obtained a more excellent ministry, by how much also he is the mediator of a better covenant, which was established upon better promises.
Heb 8:7 For if that first covenant had been faultless, then should no place have been sought for the second.

He IS the mediator of a new covenant. It does not say he would be the mediator of a new covenant.
If a covenant is in full effect, does one need a mediator? Think on that.

Example-- A company and the union who represent the workers are negotiating a new contract. They REACH AN IMPASSE AND CAN GO NO FURTHER, SO THEY ENLIST A MEDIATOR TO HELP THEM FINISH UP SO THE CONTRACT CAN GO INTO EFFECT.

See I agree with all that SCripture says about teh New Covenant.

But you have failed to show when this provision went into effect:

34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Jews are dying lost every day so how can you say this is in effect?
 

ewq1938

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If a covenant is in full effect, does one need a mediator?

Yes.

But you have failed to show when this provision went into effect:


It says ir has begun. It did when Christ died.


34 And they shall teach no more every man his neighbour, and every man his brother, saying, Know the Lord: for they shall all know me, from the least of them unto the greatest of them, saith the Lord: for I will forgive their iniquity, and I will remember their sin no more.

Jews are dying lost every day so how can you say this is in effect?

Those who reject Christ are not part of the new covenant.