GEN2REV
Well-Known Member
Where?Because God is giving you a literal time frame, and you choose to ignore it, to make up your own ideology.
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Where?Because God is giving you a literal time frame, and you choose to ignore it, to make up your own ideology.
I provided the proof in #175.My point is that there isn't any scripture that I'm aware of that supports the Revelation Millennium doctrine.
Hosea 6:2 prophesies the 2000 year Christian age, our revival, then the 1000 years when we will live in His sight.
The formula for a day in heaven, being the equal to 1000 years earth time, is in: Psalms 90:4 and 2 Peter 3:8
There is also the prophecy of Jesus in Luke 13:32, where He says: Today and tomorrow I shall be working...and the next day I shall come into My reward.
He then says: Nevertheless, [notwithstanding, or in spite of this...] I must go on today and tomorrow and the following day, for I must perish in Jerusalem. Luke 13:33
Jesus is NOT talking about the same time periods in both of these verses. If people like to think that; they make Him to be rather confused and unnecessarily repetitive.
No; He Prophesied in verse 32, how He will work for the Christian age of 2000 years. Now at 1991 years since He said that. Jesus does answer prayers, He does cure some people, He does appear to those who cry out to Him, etc.
The 'next day' is Gods reward to Jesus for His sacrifice, His reign over the world for the next thousand years, Psalms 2:7-9 Revelation 20:1-7 backs these scriptures up!
The AMill belief is illogical and unscriptural. It is a lie that denies Jesus His reward.
Your avoidance of the scriptural proofs I provided, means you stand indicted.Therefore, you stand corrected.
Timtofly said:God is giving you a literal time frame, and you choose to ignore it, to make up your own ideology.
GEN2REV" said:Where?
1. Revelation is not literal. It is symbolic and spiritual ... per ... Revelation.1,000 years in Revelation 20.
Only a person with another agenda than what the Bible actually says, would make a statement like this.You are making up your ideology based on ONE highly symbolic, spiritually prophetic book, and from a single chapter therein - with zero other support from any other books in the entire Bible.
Exactly Correct!@Keraz
As much as you, and many others, would desperately like to believe that this post (#175) PROVES the Day-Age theory, it doesn't even come close. Not ONE of the verses you posted therein says anything about a thousand year period after Christ's return. And NONE of them state that a day equals a thousand years.
If there was a single verse located anywhere in scripture, outside of Revelation, that supported Rev. 20, it would be very easy to post it, by itself, to bring this matter to a close.
There is not.
And you cannot.
On the other hand, there are many verses to support the opposing view.
Therefore, you stand corrected.
There is not one single verse that declares the time between the Cross and the Second Coming is 2000 years. So the intra-Advent period did not exist either. Your time is only true in looking back on history. The future is not history yet, so you cannot declare God's Word void of a time frame. No one stipulated in Scripture about the time for the fulness of the Gentiles. Yet John did declare a 1000 year period after the Second Coming. That 1000 year period was not between the Cross and the Second Coming. History already proved you wrong on that account. The 1000 year period was never said to be the fulness of the Gentiles.@Keraz
As much as you, and many others, would desperately like to believe that this post (#175) PROVES the Day-Age theory, it doesn't even come close. Not ONE of the verses you posted therein says anything about a thousand year period after Christ's return. And NONE of them state that a day equals a thousand years.
If there was a single verse located anywhere in scripture, outside of Revelation, that supported Rev. 20, it would be very easy to post it, by itself, to bring this matter to a close.
There is not.
And you cannot.
On the other hand, there are many verses to support the opposing view.
Therefore, you stand corrected.
No you are building your case based on the point no one can build a case. That is circular in reasoning. 1000 years is not highly symbolic. It is specific and literal. Your excuse is nonsense. Next you are going to tell me there was not 483 years between Daniel and the birth of Jesus, because Daniel is too symbolic.1. Revelation is not literal. It is symbolic and spiritual ... per ... Revelation.
2. I'm citing a scriptural concept found in 4-5 different books of scripture, that are NOT Revelation, and from multiple chapters and verses from each.
3. You are making up your ideology based on ONE highly symbolic, spiritually prophetic book, and from a single chapter therein - with zero other support from any other books in the entire Bible.
The scripturally sound doctrine wins.
Do share.John did declare a 1000 year period after the Second Coming.
I already addressed that when I said that Revelation is the only book that claims itself to be about visions and symbolism, and the only prophet anywhere in scripture that stated "I was in the spirit..."Next you are going to tell me there was not 483 years between Daniel and the birth of Jesus, because Daniel is too symbolic.
"and sware by him that liveth for ever and ever, who created the heaven and the things that are therein, and the earth and the things that are therein, and the sea and the things that are therein, that there shall be delay no longer:"I already addressed that when I said that Revelation is the only book that claims itself to be about visions and symbolism, and the only prophet anywhere in scripture that stated "I was in the spirit..."
Daniel does not do this anywhere, neither do any of the other prophets.
Again, if you want to take Revelation literally, address Revelation 10:6. It fully contradicts chapter 20 if taken literally.