Did Jesus claim to be God?

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2 Chr. 34:19

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Ἐν ἀρχῇ ἦν ὁ λόγος, καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν, καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος.
Greek transliteration En arkhêi ên ho lógos, kaì ho lógos ên pròs tòn theón, kaì theòs ên ho lógos.
SyriacPeshitta ܒ݁ܪܺܫܺܝܬ݂ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܘܗܽܘ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܠܘܳܬ݂ ܐܰܠܳܗܳܐ ܘܰܐܠܳܗܳܐ ܐܺܝܬ݂ܰܘܗ݈ܝ ܗ݈ܘܳܐ ܗܽܘ ܡܶܠܬ݂ܳܐ ܀‎
Syriac transliteration brīšīṯ ʾiṯawhi milṯā, whu milṯā ʾiṯauhi hwā luaṯ ʾalāhā; wʾalāhā iṯauhi hwā hu milṯā
SahidicCoptic ϨΝ ΤЄϨΟΥЄΙΤЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝϬΙΠϢΑϪЄ, ΑΥШ ΠϢΑϪЄ ΝЄϤϢΟΟΠ ΝΝΑϨΡΜ ΠΝΟΥΤЄ. ΑΥШ ΝЄΥΝΟΥΤЄ ΠЄ ΠϢΑϪЄ
Sahidic Coptic transliteration Hn teHoueite neFSoop nCi pSaJe auw pSaJe neFSoop nnaHrm pnoute auw neunoute pe pSaJe.
Sahidic Coptic to English In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with God, and God was the Word.
Latin Vulgate In principio erat Verbum, et Verbum erat apud Deum, et Deus erat Verbum.
After The third day...Jesus was glorified
 

Truther

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go and find out

PICJAG.
I already know.

The Father is not the same person as the son, which means the son did not impregnate his mother.

The son is an individual man, the redo of the 1st Adam, which was murdered for being sinless, which was made God after his God resurrected him via the Col 2:9 effect on his quickening spirit omnipresent body.

The son then, became the Everlasting Father/mighty God by default.
 

101G

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I already know.

The Father is not the same person as the son, which means the son did not impregnate his mother.

The son is an individual man, the redo of the 1st Adam, which was murdered for being sinless, which was made God after his God resurrected him via the Col 2:9 effect on his quickening spirit omnipresent body.

The son then, became the Everlasting Father/mighty God by default.
first thanks for the reply. second, if you knew you wouldn't have asked ... :eek: as said your benighted state of the scriptures proves that without a doubt. so I need not to respond, for you're still carnal in your thinking, "impregnate?", see how carnal you are. my, my, my. so since you say you know, fine just stay in that KNOWLEDGE, Hosea 4:6.

PICJAG.
 

tigger 2

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John 1:1:
Sahidic Coptic transliteration: Hn teHoueite neFSoop nCi pSaJe auw pSaJe neFSoop nnaHrm pnoute auw neunoute pe pSaJe.
Sahidic Coptic to English: In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with the god (God), and a god was the Word.

http://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/
 

2 Chr. 34:19

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John 1:1:
Sahidic Coptic transliteration: Hn teHoueite neFSoop nCi pSaJe auw pSaJe neFSoop nnaHrm pnoute auw neunoute pe pSaJe.
Sahidic Coptic to English: In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with the god (God), and a god was the Word.

http://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/
In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with God, and God was the Word.
 

101G

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no god at all "with" or "beside", him, or any God, with the cap "G" in God. Isaiah 45:5 "I am the LORD, and there is none else, there is no God beside me: I girded thee, though thou hast not known me:"

Isaiah 45:21 "Tell ye, and bring them near; yea, let them take counsel together: who hath declared this from ancient time? who hath told it from that time? have not I the LORD? and there is no God else beside me; a just God and a Saviour; there is none beside me."

these two verses just took care of any "god" or "God" and it took care of any second, or third person also. either with or beside him. I hope people can see what God is saying in these two scriptures. "NONE" means just that .... none, be it a "god", or "God", or any other "PERSON".

people say they believe the bible as to what is written, I'm not too sure of that. I hope people understand what "none" means. if you don't know google it.

PICJAG.
 

Truther

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first thanks for the reply. second, if you knew you wouldn't have asked ... :eek: as said your benighted state of the scriptures proves that without a doubt. so I need not to respond, for you're still carnal in your thinking, "impregnate?", see how carnal you are. my, my, my. so since you say you know, fine just stay in that KNOWLEDGE, Hosea 4:6.

PICJAG.
Mary was not impregnated?

Did Jesus even have a placenta attached to him at birth or a halo?
 

Cooper

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John 1:1:
Sahidic Coptic transliteration: Hn teHoueite neFSoop nCi pSaJe auw pSaJe neFSoop nnaHrm pnoute auw neunoute pe pSaJe.
Sahidic Coptic to English: In the beginning existed the Word, and the Word existed with the god (God), and a god was the Word.

http://nwtandcoptic.blogspot.com/
Probably a New Testament reference to the Trinity and God on earth in the likeness of man.
.
 
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101G

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Probably a New Testament reference to the Trinity and God on earth in the likeness of man.
.
not saying that you're right or wrong, but consider this. as a man God is a "diversity", why do I say this. if he was a trinity he would be a "FIRST", a "SECOND", and a "THIRD". but the bible clearly states, by God himself that he is the "FIRST" ordinal First, and the "Last" ordinal last, ordinal last. no second, or third. for man is a "diversity" of his ownself too.... with Eve the wonam who is an Adam herself. supportive scripture, Genesis 5:1 "This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;"
Genesis 5:2 "Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created."

this is why there are two definition of the term "ADAM" in the creation account.
#1. H121 אָדָם 'Adam (aw-dawm') n/p.
1. (person) Adam the name of the first man.
2. (location) a place in Israel.
[the same as H120]
KJV: Adam.
Root(s): H120

#2. H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119

Just as Adam the "First" is ANOTHER of himself in Eve the Woman. likewise the "Father" the "First" is ANOTHER of himself in the Son, the Christ.

as the Holy Ghost said by his chosen apostle, Romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them."Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

so we clearly see it in his creation man/Adam, who is the ANOTHER of his OWNSELF. the key to diversity is "ANOTHER" of one's ownself.

PICJAG.
 

Cooper

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not saying that you're right or wrong, but consider this. as a man God is a "diversity", why do I say this. if he was a trinity he would be a "FIRST", a "SECOND", and a "THIRD". but the bible clearly states, by God himself that he is the "FIRST" ordinal First, and the "Last" ordinal last, ordinal last. no second, or third. for man is a "diversity" of his ownself too.... with Eve the wonam who is an Adam herself. supportive scripture, Genesis 5:1 "This is the book of the generations of Adam. In the day that God created man, in the likeness of God made he him;"
Genesis 5:2 "Male and female created he them; and blessed them, and called their name Adam, in the day when they were created."

this is why there are two definition of the term "ADAM" in the creation account.
#1. H121 אָדָם 'Adam (aw-dawm') n/p.
1. (person) Adam the name of the first man.
2. (location) a place in Israel.
[the same as H120]
KJV: Adam.
Root(s): H120

#2. H120 אָדָם 'adam (aw-dawm') n-m.
ruddy i.e. a human being (an individual or the species, mankind, etc.).
[from H119]
KJV: X another, + hypocrite, + common sort, X low, man (mean, of low degree), person.
Root(s): H119

Just as Adam the "First" is ANOTHER of himself in Eve the Woman. likewise the "Father" the "First" is ANOTHER of himself in the Son, the Christ.

as the Holy Ghost said by his chosen apostle, Romans 1:19 "Because that which may be known of God is manifest in them; for God hath shewed it unto them."Romans 1:20 "For the invisible things of him from the creation of the world are clearly seen, being understood by the things that are made, even his eternal power and Godhead; so that they are without excuse:"

so we clearly see it in his creation man/Adam, who is the ANOTHER of his OWNSELF. the key to diversity is "ANOTHER" of one's ownself.

PICJAG.
When I said that I was thinking of Psalm 110

A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
(David only had 1 God)

The "LORD" being God in heaven and the "Lord" being the same God on earth, while still being, the same Mighty God as promised in Isaiah.

This is how it is in David's prophecy, I'm seeing the One creator God in heaven and the same One creator God in the likeness of man, while still being, the One omnipresent God in heaven and on earth. Whether in Heaven or on Earth HE remains the WORD.

Footnote.
First and last is a reference to the eternal nature of God.
.
 
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101G

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When I said that I was thinking of Psalm 110

A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool.
(David only had 1 God)

The "LORD" being God in heaven and the "Lord" being the same God on earth, while still being, the same Mighty God as promised in Isaiah.

This is how it is in David's prophecy, I'm seeing the One creator God in heaven and the same One creator God in the likeness of man, while still being, the One omnipresent God in heaven and on earth. Whether in Heaven or on Earth HE remains the WORD.

Footnote.
First and last is a reference to the eternal nature of God.
.
Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
NOT SAYING THAT YOU'RE RIGHT OR WRONG, BUT CONSIDER THIS. the Lord being in heaven, and the LORD on earth, who as you said is the SAME mighty God. but as Son he sit as High Priest, per revelation chapter 4 & 5. and at the same time making his enemies his footstool. this is bare out in verse 5, Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath."

here in Psalms 110:1 and verse 5 the clear revelation of God ordinal First and God's ordinal Last as the glorification spoken of in John chapter 17 and verse 5.

PICJAG.
 

Cooper

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Psalms 110:1 "A Psalm of David. The LORD said unto my Lord, Sit thou at my right hand, until I make thine enemies thy footstool."
NOT SAYING THAT YOU'RE RIGHT OR WRONG, BUT CONSIDER THIS. the Lord being in heaven, and the LORD on earth, who as you said is the SAME mighty God. but as Son he sit as High Priest, per revelation chapter 4 & 5. and at the same time making his enemies his footstool. this is bare out in verse 5, Psalms 110:5 "The Lord at thy right hand shall strike through kings in the day of his wrath."

here in Psalms 110:1 and verse 5 the clear revelation of God ordinal First and God's ordinal Last as the glorification spoken of in John chapter 17 and verse 5.

PICJAG.

I'm not sure you are saying anything different from me. I will just add this from the Believers Bible regarding verse 5 simply to enhance our understanding.

110:5 The last three verses of the Psalm picture the Lord Jesus as a mighty Conqueror, putting down all lawlessness and rebellion prior to the inauguration of His kingdom. The problem of identifying the personages in these verses is largely solved if we think of them as being addressed to Jehovah and as referring to the Messiah-King. Thus verse 5 would read:
The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath.

To which, with my childlike faith, I shall simply add, "this is the One God fulfilling his two roles in heaven and on earth."

God bless.
.
 
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tigger 2

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I'm not sure you are saying anything different from me. I will just add this from the Believers Bible regarding verse 5 simply to enhance our understanding.

110:5 The last three verses of the Psalm picture the Lord Jesus as a mighty Conqueror, putting down all lawlessness and rebellion prior to the inauguration of His kingdom. The problem of identifying the personages in these verses is largely solved if we think of them as being addressed to Jehovah and as referring to the Messiah-King. Thus verse 5 would read:
The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath.

To which, with my childlike faith, I shall simply add, "this is the One God fulfilling his two roles in heaven and on earth."

God bless.
.

If that is a statement in your Bible, you really should look for a new Bible.

"The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath."

Most of the many Bibles which have removed the 6000+ uses of God's name have replaced it with 'LORD' (all caps). Therefore when they write his name as 'LORD' they have mistranslated YHWH (Jehovah or Yahweh) not Adonai (ADN)!
 

101G

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I'm not sure you are saying anything different from me. I will just add this from the Believers Bible regarding verse 5 simply to enhance our understanding.

110:5 The last three verses of the Psalm picture the Lord Jesus as a mighty Conqueror, putting down all lawlessness and rebellion prior to the inauguration of His kingdom. The problem of identifying the personages in these verses is largely solved if we think of them as being addressed to Jehovah and as referring to the Messiah-King. Thus verse 5 would read:
The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath.

To which, with my childlike faith, I shall simply add, "this is the One God fulfilling his two roles in heaven and on earth."

God bless.
.
First, thanks for the reply, second, if you say "ROLES" then you are into Modelism, for that is exactly what the trinity is... Modelism in reverse. third, if verse 5 says that, then listen to the definition of "Lord" in verse 5 comparing it to "Lord" in verse 1. using the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, "Lord" here in verse 5 is the Hebrew word,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113
Compare: H3068, H1167, H1168
See also: G2962

well you cannot have two "Yahweh", or as you say, "Jehovah".
the definition give the correct rending as to who the "Lord" is. notice definition #2. it said see Exodus 5:1, and it reads, Exodus 5:1 "And afterward Moses and Aaron went in, and told Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, Let my people go, that they may hold a feast unto me in the wilderness."
here, as from H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay it is the Hebrew word,
H3068 יְהוָה Yhvah (yeh-vaw') n/p.
יְהוָֹה Yhovah (yeh-ho-vaw')
יְהוֹ Yhow (yeh-ho') [as a prefix]
1. (meaning) the self-Existent or Eternal, the I AM.
2. (person) Yahweh (Yehvah), Jewish national name of God.
3. (anglicized) Jehovah.
4. (as a name prefix) Yeho-.
5. (As expressed in Hebraic Koine Greek) ἐγώ εἰμί, I AM (literally: I myself, I am).
[from H1961]
KJV: Jehovah, the Lord.
Root(s): H1961
Compare: H3050, H3069
See also: G1510

do you see how it renderse as in translation? it can be translated as "Lord". lets look at one more, Genesis 17:1 "And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect."
here Lord is H3068 יְהוָה Yhvah (yeh-vaw') n/p. as above, and everywhere in the bible, corresponding to this word. as one poster said, "the LORD and the Lord are interchangable". well if that's true, then any separation of person, and distinction goes right out the window.

but the same "Lord" in Psalms 110:5 is the same "Lord" in 110:1. but what's the difference? ANSWER: one is in NATURAL flesh and the other in "GLORIFIED" flesh just as John 17:5 states... :eek: so any roles goes out the window, as well interchangable titles. a side note on titles. one cannot use the titles "Son" nor "Father" here in Psalms, WHY? because Father and Son are only titles, and not PERSONS. this have been the deception of the devil from the beginning.

PICJAG.
 

Cooper

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If that is a statement in your Bible, you really should look for a new Bible.

"The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath."

Most of the many Bibles which have removed the 6000+ uses of God's name have replaced it with 'LORD' (all caps). Therefore when they write his name as 'LORD' they have mistranslated YHWH (Jehovah or Yahweh) not Adonai (ADN)!
If that is a statement in your Bible, you really should look for a new Bible.

"The LORD (Adonai—here the Lord Jesus) is at Your (Jehovah's) right hand; He (Messiah) shall execute kings in the day of His wrath."

Most of the many Bibles which have removed the 6000+ uses of God's name have replaced it with 'LORD' (all caps). Therefore when they write his name as 'LORD' they have mistranslated YHWH (Jehovah or Yahweh) not Adonai (ADN)!
It is a commentary for believers. You know better, then fine. Also, the original Hebrew was ALL in capitols. They have simply retained the original rendering.
.
 
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Cooper

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First, thanks for the reply, second, if you say "ROLES" then you are into Modelism, for that is exactly what the trinity is... Modelism in reverse. third, if verse 5 says that, then listen to the definition of "Lord" in verse 5 comparing it to "Lord" in verse 1. using the Mickelson's Enhanced Strong's Dictionaries of the Greek and Hebrew Testaments, "Lord" here in verse 5 is the Hebrew word,
H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay (ad-o-noy') n-m.
1. (meaning) Lord (used as a proper name of God only).
2. (person) Adonai, The Lord God of Israel (which is actually “Yahweh God of Israel” - see Exodus 5:1 and 120 other occurrences).
[am emphatic form of H113]
KJV: (my) Lord.
Root(s): H113
Compare: H3068, H1167, H1168
See also: G2962

well you cannot have two "Yahweh", or as you say, "Jehovah".
the definition give the correct rending as to who the "Lord" is. notice definition #2. it said see Exodus 5:1, and it reads, Exodus 5:1 "And afterward Moses and Aaron went in, and told Pharaoh, Thus saith the LORD God of Israel, Let my people go, that they may hold a feast unto me in the wilderness."
here, as from H136 אֲדֹנָי 'Adonay it is the Hebrew word,
H3068 יְהוָה Yhvah (yeh-vaw') n/p.
יְהוָֹה Yhovah (yeh-ho-vaw')
יְהוֹ Yhow (yeh-ho') [as a prefix]
1. (meaning) the self-Existent or Eternal, the I AM.
2. (person) Yahweh (Yehvah), Jewish national name of God.
3. (anglicized) Jehovah.
4. (as a name prefix) Yeho-.
5. (As expressed in Hebraic Koine Greek) ἐγώ εἰμί, I AM (literally: I myself, I am).
[from H1961]
KJV: Jehovah, the Lord.
Root(s): H1961
Compare: H3050, H3069
See also: G1510

do you see how it renderse as in translation? it can be translated as "Lord". lets look at one more, Genesis 17:1 "And when Abram was ninety years old and nine, the LORD appeared to Abram, and said unto him, I am the Almighty God; walk before me, and be thou perfect."
here Lord is H3068 יְהוָה Yhvah (yeh-vaw') n/p. as above, and everywhere in the bible, corresponding to this word. as one poster said, "the LORD and the Lord are interchangable". well if that's true, then any separation of person, and distinction goes right out the window.

but the same "Lord" in Psalms 110:5 is the same "Lord" in 110:1. but what's the difference? ANSWER: one is in NATURAL flesh and the other in "GLORIFIED" flesh just as John 17:5 states... :eek: so any roles goes out the window, as well interchangable titles. a side note on titles. one cannot use the titles "Son" nor "Father" here in Psalms, WHY? because Father and Son are only titles, and not PERSONS. this have been the deception of the devil from the beginning.

PICJAG.
You can shut up about roles and modalism, better still, you can find a word to describes God's mission on earth, that is different from his heavenly work. Because if you cannot see it, I do. I see the One God performing two different functions, one in heaven, and one on earth. So how would you describe God's simultaneous work in heaven and on earth at the same time if it is not a dual role? Even humans do it. Or is God not capable of multi-tasking?

Added: Your talk of a "proper name of God" reminds me of the Jehovah Witnesses.
.
 
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brionne

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@tigger 2, John 1:1 "In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.". putting all grammer aside, and using the Word of God only, here's why I believe that at John 1:1c "God" is correct instead of "god". Deuteronomy 32:39 "See now that I, even I, am he, and there is no god with me: I kill, and I make alive; I wound, and I heal: neither is there any that can deliver out of my hand."

clearly God himself said that there is no "god" with him. well that ended the controversy for me concering a "god" "WITH" him, or the Word was a "god".

God's grammer rank supreme. because all of the versions you gave states "god" in Deuteronomy 32:39 as not "with" God, so they are are NOT grammarly correct in substance... meaning the TRUTH. so they contridict themselves. .

so John 1:1 is correct.

PICJAG.

the belly is called a god at phil 3:19
Psalm 8:5 refers to the angles as gods
Exodus 4:16 Moses was told that he was to serve as “God” to Aaron and to Pharaoh

Jesus can be called a god, just as Moses was called a god, angels were called gods and the belly was called a god
Im sure there are more examples then this, but its something to consider.
 

Cooper

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the belly is called a god at phil 3:19
Psalm 8:5 refers to the angles as gods
Exodus 4:16 Moses was told that he was to serve as “God” to Aaron and to Pharaoh

Jesus can be called a god, just as Moses was called a god, angels were called gods and the belly was called a god
Im sure there are more examples then this, but its something to consider.
I agree, people make a god of pop stars for example. Food is god to many people as you say, Hitler was like God to many, but there is only one heavenly creator. All we need do is to fix our eyes on Jesus the WORD who created the heavens and the earth and who descended from heaven to be with us and then returned.
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brionne

Active Member
May 31, 2010
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I agree, people make a god of pop stars for example. Food is god to many people as you say, Hitler was like God to many, but there is only one heavenly creator.
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Yes there is.
With that in mind its good to meditate on Revelation 1:1
A revelation by Jesus Christ, which God gave him, to show his slaves the things that must shortly take place. And he sent his angel and presented it in signs through him to his slave John, 2 who bore witness to the word God gave and to the witness Jesus Christ gave, yes, to all the things he saw. 3 Happy is the one who reads aloud and those who hear the words of this prophecy and who observe the things written in it, for the appointed time is near.