Did Jesus claim to be God?

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APAK

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Well then we await your research you say you did, to back up your claim here.
Wake up man I did already. Look a few posts back. And who is 'we'? Is it your support and backup props you need, your gang of triads....hahaha

And for once, why cannot you contribute and provide some research on any subject I've discussed with you? It's always a one-way street. You don't to that I realize, as you are unable to even see and recognize the tip of your nose,
 

Webers_Home

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This is a deep spiritual issue of the heart not a just a mental decision of a carnal mind that
changes sometime with the tides.

The human mind is produced by a 3-pound lump of organic tissue, and not
even all three of those pounds are used for cognitive purposes; plus: 60% of
that organic lump is fat.

With just the right bump on the head, or a clot or an aneurysm, you can
easily become another person whose likes, dislikes, and preferences will be
totally different and you quite possible won't be able to recognize your own
family and/or your closest friends and your once-familiar associates. It
happens all the time; and that's not the worst.

The Serpent-- a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2) --has the ability to tamper with
the human body and the human mind in ways not easily detected; e.g. Luke
13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:2.
_
 

Ronald Nolette

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Wake up man I did already. Look a few posts back. And who is 'we'? Is it your support and backup props you need, your gang of triads....hahaha

And for once, why cannot you contribute and provide some research on any subject I've discussed with you? It's always a one-way street. You don't to that I realize, as you are unable to even see and recognize the tip of your nose,
Well show me the post where you cited the work of linguistic experts and I will gladly look at it.

But Jesus claimed divinity and claimed to be equal to Gd the Father!
 
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Aunty Jane

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This is your theory and gibberish nonsense, and from the spirit of error.
And here it begins…..so many people betray their insecurity by resorting to this kind of response….
Address the subject in a mature manner and back up what you say with scripture….no need to get childishly defensive.
First of all, Scripture does not address the Holy Spirit as, 'it', but rather, 'He'.
If you have any understanding of Greek grammar you would know that Greek assigns gender to things that are genderless. (Like French)
Both the Hebrew and Greek words for “spirit” are the same words that are translated “wind.” Like the wind, the holy spirit cannot be seen; still it is an active force that can produce visible effects. Its being referred to as the “Spirit of God” or the “Spirit of the LORD” is evidence that it is an instrumentality that belongs to God. (Gen 1:2; Judges 15:14) The holy spirit is never called “Yahweh”, just as the son is never called “Yahweh”.

If the holy spirit is not a person, why does the Bible refer to the “helper” or “Paraclete” as “he” instead of “it”? Pa·raʹkle·tos is Scripturally treated as the masculine form of the word and therefore uses masculine pronouns…..we have become acquainted with “pronouns” unfortunately in this 21st century, for all the wrong reasons.

Let me give you an example….

1 Cor 2:11-13….(NASB)
”For who among people knows the thoughts of a person except the spirit of the person that is in him? So also the thoughtsof God no one knows, except the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have not received the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, so that we may know the things freely given to us by God. 13 We also speak these things, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words.”

The same Greek word is used in all instances.

The Greek word for “spirit here is “pneuma”, meaning…
”πνεῦμα pneûma, pnyoo'-mah; from G4154; a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively, a spirit, i.e. (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, demon, or (divine) God, Christ's spirit, the Holy Spirit:—ghost, life, spirit(-ual, -ually), mind.” (Strongs)

So to render the word “spirit” as a “person” does not convey the true meaning given to it in the entirety of scripture. Context always helps.
Scripturally, Jesus is God on His own over all creation, yet subjected to the only true GOD. And, He is the Word of the only true GOD, and also the visible image of the only true invisible GOD.
For any being to be “in subjection” to another means no equality. The one who is subjected is inferior in position to the one who is higher. 1 Cor 11:3…Paul wrote….

”But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.”

Simply stated the headship arrangement is one of accountability…..there is rank in this arrangement, whereby one is subject to the headship of the other….God is clearly ‘the head of Christ’.
The scriptures tell us that Jesus is “God’s holy servant” (Acts 4:27, 30)…..how can God be his own servant?
The Holy Spirit on His own is God, since He is the power of the only true GOD. He descended on Jesus here on earth, and when Jesus spoke during His ministry representing the only true GOD. He the Holy Spirit is the power of the only true GOD in Jesus, which went out to accomplish.
Do you not see how illogical this is? How can Jesus be part of this godhead if he needs one or both or the other parts to function? Yahweh does not need Jesus….Jesus needs his Father. The holy spirit is God’s impersonal force or power….it has no function without God. Jesus needed the holy spirit to empower him, but only after his baptism…..please explain why, if he was God, he needed to be given this power…?

Then you might explain why Jesus needed to be “given” “all authority” “in heaven and on earth”, since God is the ultimate authority over all things and always has been? (Matt 28:18)
Towards the end, Jesus was raised to life by He the Holy Spirit as well. Moreover, Jesus had to ascend home in order for He the Holy Spirit to be sent down to the Apostles, to accomplish their given commission.
Scripture says that God raised Jesus.
Romans 10:9…Paul wrote….
”For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.”

Pause for a moment to absorb what is said there…..we are to acknowledge Jesus as “Lord” (which is a title of respect, like “Sir” or “Master”)…..Sarah called Abraham “lord” (1 Peter 3:6)….she didn’t think he was God.

At 1 Cor 8:5 it is stated that there are ‘many gods and many lords’…..calling Jesus “Lord” is not calling him “God”. It is clearly stated that “God raised Jesus” from the dead. Since the living God is immortal, he cannot die. So, the living God raised up his dead son after three days in the grave. Jesus did not raise himself.

Why did Jesus need to return to his Father before the promised holy spirit was poured out at Pentecost?
Because he had to present himself before his God and Father, establishing the completion of his mission.

Hebrews 9:24-25…
For Christ did not enter into a holy place made with hands, which is a copy of the reality, but into heaven itself, so that he now appears before God on our behalf. 25 This was not done to offer himself often, as when the high priest enters into the holy place from year to year with blood that is not his own.”

This established him as God’s appointed “High Priest” for all redeemed humanity.

It saddens me greatly that people rely on the teachings of “the church” (a corrupted counterfeit foretold by Jesus) rather than investigating the teachings of the Bible as they were written, without all the confusion that results from trying to make scripture say what it never did….

The author of all that confusion is “the god of this world”…..(2 Cor 4:3-4) The sower of the “weeds”.
 

APAK

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The human mind is produced by a 3-pound lump of organic tissue, and not
even all three of those pounds are used for cognitive purposes; plus: 60% of
that organic lump is fat.

With just the right bump on the head, or a clot or an aneurysm, you can
easily become another person whose likes, dislikes, and preferences will be
totally different and you quite possible won't be able to recognize your own
family and/or your closest friends and your once-familiar associates. It
happens all the time; and that's not the worst.

The Serpent-- a.k.a. the Devil (Rev 20:2) --has the ability to tamper with
the human body and the human mind in ways not easily detected; e.g. Luke
13:16, Mark 5:1-5, and Eph 2:2.
_
So you believe that your true will, spirit and memory reside solely in your physical brain and can be externally tampered with by evil and other incidents and accidents? Interesting.

Now not recognizing people who were once recognizable like those with autism or Parkinson's disease classified as dementia is not really the same as changing your core view of/in life. This former is a mental/physical issue or impairment and is completely separate from, and does not affect the spiritual you, that now cannot function in unison with your brain/mind through and in the physical world as it did before.
 

APAK

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Well show me the post where you cited the work of linguistic experts and I will gladly look at it.

But Jesus claimed divinity and claimed to be equal to Gd the Father!
Wishful thinking in your last statement Ronald.
 

Aunty Jane

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Wrong again. Jesus nature is divine or god.
Jesus is the “image“ of HIS GOD. An image is a reflection of who Yahweh is. In personality and character, he is in all ways like his Father.
He was not an angel who got infused with a divine nature. He is inherently god in His nature
No one said that Jesus is just “an angel”…..he is a creation of his Father as he plainly stated in Rev 3:14.
What makes him a unique “son of God” among many “sons” is the fact that he was the first and only direct creation of his Father.

I don’t recall any scripture where angels ever called God, their “Father”. They were not created directly by him, as the pre-human Jesus was. As God’s assigned co-worker, all things came into existence “through” the agency of his “firstborn” son. (Col 1:15-17)
Yahweh is their God, but Yahweh is both God and literal Father to Jesus.
Adam was also called a “son of God” because he was created, not born.
And you do not understand the word image (karackter) in the letter of Hebrews.
A citation would be useful since I cannot find this particular word anywhere.

Colossians 1:15 is an example of what an “image” of the invisible God means….
”He is the image of the invisible God, the firstborn of all creation.” (NASB)

The word “image” there is “eikōn” from which we get the word “icon”. So an “icon” is just an image depicting someone, but is not the actual person.

Being “the firstborn of all creation” makes the pre-human Jesus part of that creation.

Being the “firstborn” makes him the first of a generation….and it says he is the “FIRSTBORN OF ALL CREATION”, which means that he pre-existed “all creation”. So “firstborn” here has no reference to his human birth.….but it does indicate a beginning of his existence…..a figurative “birth” so to speak. He is “begotten”, meaning that he had a ‘begetter’…..his Father, who had to exist before him.

What stands out to me is the fact that people like yourself who profess to know you Bible have been swayed by the teachings of men, just as you accuse us of being…..but when you examine scripture and allow scripture to explain itself, a very different picture emerges, but in your desperation to uphold your favored doctrines, you fly in the face of clear and plain statements that undo your unscriptural beliefs.

In Genesis 1:26 where God states that he would make man according to “our image“ what is the word used?
It is “ṣelem” and it means….”an image” or “likeness”.
There are numerous passages that declare Jesus is God and teh Holy Spirit is God. but your watchtower masters have indoctrinated you with ana bominable retranslation of Scripture that robs God of who He is.
There are NO scriptures where God or his son claim equality with the holy spirit as one God in three persons…….all they have is suggestion forced into an ambiguous or mistranslated text. You can‘t support a doctrine based on what some man thinks scripture says….the Pharisees were a classic example of scripture manipulation….Christendom operates under the same ‘master’. They are mirror images of one another….the devil has no new tricks.

Your own “masters” have sold you a right royal bill of contaminated goods, but you will never see what you don’t want to see….it would mean that your whole belief system is based on a very faulty foundation….and that a great collapse is coming. (Matt 7:21-23)

We will all stand before the same judge….”many” will be shocked at his rejection.

Your beliefs are yours to have and to hold till death do you part…..but from my studies over many years, it’s an unholy marriage, but not one you are willing to divorce…..that is your choice and duly noted.
 
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Webers_Home

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Col 1:15 . . He is the firstborn of all creation

The Greek word translated "firstborn" in that verse is prototokos, which
never means created first; no, it always means born first. The correct Greek
word for created first is protoktistos.

* John Que and Jan Doe Jehovah's Witness probably don't know the
difference between prototokos and protoktistos; and no doubt would care
little about it anyway. To some; born first and created first are pretty much
synonymous.

Anyway: the thing to note is that "firstborn" doesn't always refer to birth
order. The term also refers to superiority, and as such is transferable, viz:
it's possible to circumvent the eldest son and give his advantages to a
younger, e.g. Ishmael to Isaac (Gen 20:11-12) Esau to Jacob (Gen 25:23)
Reuben to Joseph (Gen 49:3-4, 1Chr 5:1) and Manasseh to Ephraim. (Gen
48:13-14)

The rank of firstborn isn't limited to family circles. For example the people of
Israel are God's firstborn among the world's nations (Ex 4:22) and David is
God's firstborn among the world's heads of State. (Ps 89:20-27)


NOTE: The transfer of supremacy from David to Jesus (Psalm 110) is highly
irregular because in their case it was from father to son instead of sibling to
sibling. (cf. Matt 22:41-45)

In the beginning, Adam was the ranking man over all the Earth (Gen 1:26
28) but he has since been displaced by someone better. (Dan 7:13-14, John
3:35, 1Cor 15:27, and Phil 2:8-11, Heb 1:1-2)
_
 

Webers_Home

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Below is the text of Col 1:16-17 quoted verbatim from the Watchtower
Society's New World Translation of the Holy Scriptures ©1969.

"Because by means of him all [other] things were created in the heavens
and upon the earth, the things visible and the things invisible, no matter
whether they are thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All
[other] things have been created through him and for him. Also, he is before
all [other] things and by means of him all [other] things were made to
exist.
"

The word "other" is in brackets to alert Bible readers that it's not in the
Greek manuscript; viz: the Society's translators took the liberty to pencil it
in; which gives the impression that God's son was His first creation; and
thereafter, the Son created everything else.


NOTE: I heard it from a JW that the Society's translators added "other"
because that's what Col 1:16-17 means to say even though it doesn't say so
in writing. In other words; that portion of the Society's Bible is an
interpretation rather than a translation.

One day, a pair of Watchtower missionaries came to my door consisting of
an experienced worker and a neophyte. I immediately began subjecting the
inexperienced Witness to a line of questioning that homed in on the Society's
rather dishonest habit of embellishing the Bible in order to reinforce its line
of thinking.

I had him read the Society's text of Col 1:16-17 and then pointed out that
the word "other" is in brackets to alert him to the fact that "other" is not in
the Greek manuscript. The experienced worker corroborated my statement.

I then proceeded to have the inexperienced Witness read the passage sans
"other". It comes out like this:

"By means of him all things were created in the heavens and upon the earth,
the things visible and the things invisible, no matter whether they are
thrones or lordships or governments or authorities. All things have been
created through him and for him. Also, he is before all things and by means
of him all things were made to exist.
"

The young man's eyes really lit up; and he actually grinned with delight to
discover that Col 1:16-17 reveals something quite different than what he
was led to believe.

Had I pressed the attack; I would've pointed out that the Society is
inconsistent. They really should've penciled "other" into John 1:3 to make it
read like this:

"All [other] things came into existence through him, and apart from him not
even one [other] thing came into existence."


BTW: The 1984 revised version of the New World Translation omits brackets
around the word "other" in Col 1:16-17. However, it's readily seen from the
Watchtower Society's Kingdom Interlinear Translation of the Greek
Scriptures ©1969 that "other" is nowhere to be found in the Greek text.
Caveat Lector.
_
 

APAK

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Col 1:15 . . He is the firstborn of all creation

The Greek word translated "firstborn" in that verse is prototokos, which
never means created first; no, it always means born first. The correct Greek
word for created first is protoktistos.

* John Que and Jan Doe Jehovah's Witness probably don't know the
difference between prototokos and protoktistos; and no doubt would care
little about it anyway. To some; born first and created first are pretty much
synonymous.

Anyway: the thing to note is that "firstborn" doesn't always refer to birth
order. The term also refers to superiority, and as such is transferable, viz:
it's possible to circumvent the eldest son and give his advantages to a
younger, e.g. Ishmael to Isaac (Gen 20:11-12) Esau to Jacob (Gen 25:23)
Reuben to Joseph (Gen 49:3-4, 1Chr 5:1) and Manasseh to Ephraim. (Gen
48:13-14)

The rank of firstborn isn't limited to family circles. For example the people of
Israel are God's firstborn among the world's nations (Ex 4:22) and David is
God's firstborn among the world's heads of State. (Ps 89:20-27)


NOTE: The transfer of supremacy from David to Jesus (Psalm 110) is highly
irregular because in their case it was from father to son instead of sibling to
sibling. (cf. Matt 22:41-45)

In the beginning, Adam was the ranking man over all the Earth (Gen 1:26
28) but he has since been displaced by someone better. (Dan 7:13-14, John
3:35, 1Cor 15:27, and Phil 2:8-11, Heb 1:1-2)
_
Logic says that the act or event of being born is preceded or the result of first being created by external influences. powers, and various variables or ingredients that causes new internal/independent changes to form until a specific state of maturity is reached to be able to live or function independently.

And this also means this birth means the coming into existence for the first time. Your presented argument in Col 1:15 is a red herring. I'm sure others, including JWs know the difference between prototokos and protoktistos.

And yes, firstborn also says that that this creation and birth of the first of a new kind usually mean the superior or higher ranking one of that kind. And Jesus did fit this form and description, first as the way he was created by God himself, as a special kind of human being, and then when he became the first of this type of new birth from the dead by his resurrection into immortality.

He became the first born then in two ways of 'all' limited in scope, and not the Genesis, creation, if you care to read the context surrounding these words of Paul. This 'all of creation' began since his resurrection into his ascension into heaven. Thinking of Genesis here would not fit the context at all. Why would Paul be suddenly be speaking about Genesis and linking Jesus with it. That would be remarkable and unsuited for the message he was conveying to his audience.
 

Fred J

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And here it begins…..so many people betray their insecurity by resorting to this kind of response….
Address the subject in a mature manner and back up what you say with scripture….no need to get childishly defensive.

If you have any understanding of Greek grammar you would know that Greek assigns gender to things that are genderless. (Like French)
Both the Hebrew and Greek words for “spirit” are the same words that are translated “wind.” Like the wind, the holy spirit cannot be seen; still it is an active force that can produce visible effects. Its being referred to as the “Spirit of God” or the “Spirit of the LORD” is evidence that it is an instrumentality that belongs to God. (Gen 1:2; Judges 15:14) The holy spirit is never called “Yahweh”, just as the son is never called “Yahweh”.

If the holy spirit is not a person, why does the Bible refer to the “helper” or “Paraclete” as “he” instead of “it”? Pa·raʹkle·tos is Scripturally treated as the masculine form of the word and therefore uses masculine pronouns…..we have become acquainted with “pronouns” unfortunately in this 21st century, for all the wrong reasons.

Let me give you an example….

1 Cor 2:11-13….(NASB)
”For who among people knows the thoughts of a person except the spirit of the person that is in him? So also the thoughtsof God no one knows, except the Spirit of God. 12 Now we have not received the spirit of the world, but the Spirit who is from God, so that we may know the things freely given to us by God. 13 We also speak these things, not in words taught by human wisdom, but in those taught by the Spirit, combining spiritual thoughts with spiritual words.”

The same Greek word is used in all instances.

The Greek word for “spirit here is “pneuma”, meaning…
”πνεῦμα pneûma, pnyoo'-mah; from G4154; a current of air, i.e. breath (blast) or a breeze; by analogy or figuratively, a spirit, i.e. (human) the rational soul, (by implication) vital principle, mental disposition, etc., or (superhuman) an angel, demon, or (divine) God, Christ's spirit, the Holy Spirit:—ghost, life, spirit(-ual, -ually), mind.” (Strongs)

So to render the word “spirit” as a “person” does not convey the true meaning given to it in the entirety of scripture. Context always helps.

For any being to be “in subjection” to another means no equality. The one who is subjected is inferior in position to the one who is higher. 1 Cor 11:3…Paul wrote….

”But I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; in turn, the head of a woman is the man; in turn, the head of the Christ is God.”

Simply stated the headship arrangement is one of accountability…..there is rank in this arrangement, whereby one is subject to the headship of the other….God is clearly ‘the head of Christ’.
The scriptures tell us that Jesus is “God’s holy servant” (Acts 4:27, 30)…..how can God be his own servant?

Do you not see how illogical this is? How can Jesus be part of this godhead if he needs one or both or the other parts to function? Yahweh does not need Jesus….Jesus needs his Father. The holy spirit is God’s impersonal force or power….it has no function without God. Jesus needed the holy spirit to empower him, but only after his baptism…..please explain why, if he was God, he needed to be given this power…?

Then you might explain why Jesus needed to be “given” “all authority” “in heaven and on earth”, since God is the ultimate authority over all things and always has been? (Matt 28:18)

Scripture says that God raised Jesus.
Romans 10:9…Paul wrote….
”For if you publicly declare with your mouth that Jesus is Lord, and exercise faith in your heart that God raised him up from the dead, you will be saved.”

Pause for a moment to absorb what is said there…..we are to acknowledge Jesus as “Lord” (which is a title of respect, like “Sir” or “Master”)…..Sarah called Abraham “lord” (1 Peter 3:6)….she didn’t think he was God.

At 1 Cor 8:5 it is stated that there are ‘many gods and many lords’…..calling Jesus “Lord” is not calling him “God”. It is clearly stated that “God raised Jesus” from the dead. Since the living God is immortal, he cannot die. So, the living God raised up his dead son after three days in the grave. Jesus did not raise himself.

Why did Jesus need to return to his Father before the promised holy spirit was poured out at Pentecost?
Because he had to present himself before his God and Father, establishing the completion of his mission.

Hebrews 9:24-25…
For Christ did not enter into a holy place made with hands, which is a copy of the reality, but into heaven itself, so that he now appears before God on our behalf. 25 This was not done to offer himself often, as when the high priest enters into the holy place from year to year with blood that is not his own.”

This established him as God’s appointed “High Priest” for all redeemed humanity.

It saddens me greatly that people rely on the teachings of “the church” (a corrupted counterfeit foretold by Jesus) rather than investigating the teachings of the Bible as they were written, without all the confusion that results from trying to make scripture say what it never did….

The author of all that confusion is “the god of this world”…..(2 Cor 4:3-4) The sower of the “weeds”.
Go ahead, flatter yourself, for your non tangible reply content worn me down, no thank you, times up !
 
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Webers_Home

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The thing to note is that the Word's flesh wasn't born first in the grand
scheme of things. That distinction belongs to Adam's flesh.
_
 

Fred J

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Col 1:15 . . He is the firstborn of all creation

The Greek word translated "firstborn" in that verse is prototokos, which
never means created first; no, it always means born first. The correct Greek
word for created first is protoktistos.
Greek scholar, are you using evolution, He is not created but came into place out of nothing. ??

Wake up !

You've translated, meaning, 'born first', from, 'firstborn', which never means created first ??

What a blunt impact it has made sadly by an amateur, between, 'firstborn; and 'born first', and 'created'.

Isn't the scripture plainly reads in other words, based on 'all creation', He the Word was 'born first' ??

All creation were 'created' by GOD, therefore the Word too in creation, is the 'firstborn' or 'born first', the same, period
Anyway: the thing to note is that "firstborn" doesn't always refer to birth
order. The term also refers to superiority, and as such is transferable, viz:
it's possible to circumvent the eldest son and give his advantages to a
younger, e.g. Ishmael to Isaac (Gen 20:11-12) Esau to Jacob (Gen 25:23)
Reuben to Joseph (Gen 49:3-4, 1Chr 5:1) and Manasseh to Ephraim. (Gen
48:13-14)

The rank of firstborn isn't limited to family circles. For example the people of
Israel are God's firstborn among the world's nations (Ex 4:22) and David is
God's firstborn among the world's heads of State. (Ps 89:20-27)


NOTE: The transfer of supremacy from David to Jesus (Psalm 110) is highly
irregular because in their case it was from father to son instead of sibling to
sibling. (cf. Matt 22:41-45)

In the beginning, Adam was the ranking man over all the Earth (Gen 1:26
28) but he has since been displaced by someone better. (Dan 7:13-14, John
3:35, 1Cor 15:27, and Phil 2:8-11, Heb 1:1-2)
_
Let's cut to the chase, Colossians 1:15, is referring to 'all creation', and the Word is the 'firstborn' in creation, period
 

Aunty Jane

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Go ahead, flatter yourself, for your non tangible reply content worn me down, no thank you, times up !
Flatter myself? All I did was present you with scripture....that is all in your Bible too is it not? You have no reply because you cannot argue with the word of God....There is simply no solid scriptural foundation for who you believe God to be. If there was, this issue would have been settled centuries ago.....
 

Fred J

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Flatter myself? All I did was present you with scripture....that is all in your Bible too is it not? You have no reply because you cannot argue with the word of God....There is simply no solid scriptural foundation for who you believe God to be. If there was, this issue would have been settled centuries ago.....

The Holy Spirit is not God….it emanates from God as his boundless power….directed to whomever and wherever it is needed.
Yes precisely flatter yourself, you just falsely presented to us, the Holy Spirit is referred to as 'it' here and 'it' there.

Now, where's your scripture quote to back up your short presentation first ?

In the Gospel according to John, he witnessed that Jesus referred to the Holy Spirit as 'He', the 'Comforter', the FATHER will give the disciples.

For it is written; "And I will pray the FATHER, and HE shall give you another Comforter, that He may abide with you for ever; ...................."

He is also included in the union with the FATHER and Son, when baptizing believers. 'Baptize them in the name of the FATHER, of the Son and of the Holy Spirit.'

Also is written; 'For GOD is not the author of confusion, but of peace, as in all churches of the saints.'

So, why do we have to doubt the nearest Greek translation, the KJV version we have today ?

Do you claim to be better than HIS ordained scholars having the Holy Spirit then ?

Or is it, GOD trying to hide behind you scholars of today, to correct HIS written words gradually ?

In other words, as if GOD trying to say, "Whoopsie Daisy folks, I've made translation error, choosing MY prior scholars to translate from Greek to English, sorry."
:oops:
 
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Waiting on him

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Let's cut to the chase, Colossians 1:15, is referring to 'all creation', and the Word is the 'firstborn' in creation, period
It could simply be stating the creation that begins in the first century. With the birth of Jesus, Gods firstborn Son.
 
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