Davy
Well-Known Member
The position of the church and society at large is mistaken as to what Jesus was quoted as saying in the gospels. IMHO
Let's discuss.
Questions:
1) What did Jesus actually say?
2) Why did he say it?
3) If we got this wrong, where do we go from here?
The position of the church and society at large is that adultery (sexual immorality) is grounds for divorce.
And they will quote Jesus as an authority on this. But is Jesus being misquoted? Yes, I believe so.
The biggest problem is the disconnect we have with the culture that Jesus was speaking to.
The church teaches that the only grounds for divorce is adultery. (sexual immorality)
But that is not what Jesus actually said.
You simply don't know what... in the world you are talking about.
Jesus gave the 'spirit' of the law against adultery. He did not abolish that law, He only showed its position from one's heart.
Adultery per God's law means FORNICATION outside the marriage, NOT sexual immorality like your stupid post says!
A spouse who is caught in FORNICATION OUTSIDE THE MARRIAGE is guilty of Adultery, and per God's law, the other spouse is LEGALLY entitled to a divorce. The only other reason for the end of a marriage per God's law is death of one of the spouses. Jesus did not change that.
What about the woman found guilty of Adultery which Jesus forgave her sin? Well, if one believes Lord Jesus of Nazareth was just another human like us, it would raise that kind of question indeed of why He forgave the adulteress. But because He is GOD The Son, He has the POWER to forgive sin. So who can go against His Power to forgive?
Yet in the courts, this is not so, because Jesus is no longer walking this earth to be in that situation with forgiving an adulterous woman. Instead today, we can get forgiveness unto our 'spirit' for breaking God's laws, but we still may suffer a penalty per man's court system which God has ordained per Romans 13.