Thanks for letting Christians know that the heretical Jehovah's Witness NWT translation is MORE ACCURATE than the KJB!
I already debunked this absurd and nonsensical idea that Christ will sit on God the Father and treat Him as an inanimate throne. Such foolishness and blasphemy from those who call Jesus "a god" (NWT John 1:1).
All these lengthy posts trying to prove that the God the Father does not call Jesus "GOD" (THEOS) are based upon a deliberate distortion of the Scriptures, which were corrupted by heretics to attack the deity of Christ.
Both the Critical and the Recieved texts as well as all English translations other than the NWT support the KJB.
RECEIVED TEXT
πρὸς δὲ τὸν υἱόν, Ὁ θρόνος σου, ὁ Θεός, εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, ῥάβδος εὐθύτητος ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας σου.
CRITICAL TEXT
πρὸς δὲ τὸν Υἱόν Ὁ θρόνος σου ὁ Θεὸς εἰς τὸν αἰῶνα τοῦ αἰῶνος, καὶ ἡ ῥάβδος τῆς εὐθύτητος ῥάβδος τῆς βασιλείας αὐτοῦ
KING JAMES BIBLE
But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom.
ENGLISH STANDARD VERSION
But of the Son he says, “Your throne, O God, is forever and ever, the scepter of uprightness is the scepter of your kingdom.
The
King James Bible has been proven to be archaic and inaccurate, for do you say "From whence cometh thou" (Job 2:2,
KJV) or "canst not tell whence it cometh" ?(John 3:8,
KJV) Rather, do you not say: "Where have you come from ?" (Job 2:2,
New World Translation) if you want to know where a person has been or "you do not know where it comes from" if you can see that a person does not know something.(John 3:8,
New World Translation)
Since when does
archaic English
trump over modern English ? Would you use medical techniques from 400 years ago, such bloodletting to solve a sore throat ? Well, just over 200 years ago, on December 14,1799, consider what physicians did for George Washington when he woke up (at about 2 AM) with a seriously inflamed throat, having shortness of breath.
The doctors took out about 80 ounces of blood over 12 hours through bloodletting, which is about 40 percent of an adult's total volume, causing his condition to rapidly deteriorate, so that by 11:30 that night, he was dead. Was their medical knowledge accurate ? What did it do George Washington ? Hastened his death.
Hence, the
King James Bible has played a damaging role in people's viewpoints, causing them to come to
wrong conclusions, such as Jesus is God. For instance, at John 8:58, the
King James Bible reads: "Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am (Greek
ego eimi)".
Is this accurate ? No. The context alone clearly points out what is being discussed, that of
how old Jesus is ("said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham",
KJV),
not who he was.
If I ask
how old you are, do start by telling me what job you have or how big a family you may have ? I asked
how old you are,
not who you are. So, Jesus answered with the words: "Most truly I say to you, before Abraham came into existence, I have been".(John 8:58,
New World Translation)
Greek scholar Jason BeDuhn, professor of Religious Studies at Northern Arizona University (USA), with a Ph. D. degree from Indiana University in Comparative Study of Religion, an M.T.S. from Harvard Divinity School and a B.A. in Religious Studies from the University of Illinois, stated that "because Greek idioms are
different from English idioms, translators do
not translate these expressions
word-for-word, but rather
convey the meaning of the Greek idiom in proper, comprehensible English. It is ungrammatical English for something referred to with a present "am" to occur earlier in time than something described with a past "came to be".......In John 8:58, since Jesus existence is not completed past action, but ongoing, we must use some sort of imperfect verbal form to convey that: "I have been (since) before Abraham came to be". That's as
close as we can get to what the Greek says in our own language if we pay attention to all parts of the sentence. The NW (
New World Translation) coordinate the two verbs in John 8:58 according to proper English syntax, and that accurately reflect the meaning of the Greek idiom. The other translations fail to do so", such as the
King James Bible.(
Truth in Translation: Accuracy and Bias in English Translations of the New Testament, pub. in 2003)
Or for example, at John 10:33, according to the
King James Bible, it reads: "The Jews answered him saying, For a good work we stone thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that thou, being a man, makest thyself God". Is this accurate ? No. Why ?
Simply put because the word for "god" is
not preceded by the definite Greek article "ton" that means "the", making the word "god" as
indefinite so that it accurately reads "a god", not God or "the God". And anyone "worth their salt" can see that Jesus referred to Psalms 82 at John 10:34, whereby the apostate judges of Israel were called "gods".
Thus, he used the same wording for the wicked judges of Israel at Psalms 82:6. Have you not read John 10:35 even in the
King James Bible that says: "If he (God) call them gods (the wicked judges of Israel), unto whom the word of (the definite Greek article
ton is used here, so that it can rightly be rendered as "the God") God came, and the scripture cannot be broken".
Thence, Jesus is "a god", but
not "the God" (John 1:1, 2 whereby the definite Greek article "ton" is used before "God" the first and third times, but
not in the second instance, so that Jesus is "a god") and of which the Jews were angry at Jesus for calling himself "a god", not "the God". Just one verse down, Jesus says, as rendered by the
King James Bible: "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath
sanctified ("sanctified", Greek
hagiazo meaning "to make holy, setting apart for use by God"), and sent into the world, Thou blasphemist; because I said, I am the ("the", Greek
ton)
Son of God ?"(John 10:36)
Question: How can Jesus be God and yet be
sanctified by God, being made holy, since God is
always holy ?
