Does man naturally have ability to Seek God ?

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Ronald Nolette

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What made you seek him?

1. Well ultimately it was Gods timing to bring me to faith.
Galatians 1:15
But when it pleased God, who separated me from my mother's womb, and called me by his grace,

2. It was my aunt who steadfastly shared the word with me, and who also prayed and fasted for me every Friday for over six months.

I was lower than pond scum at the bottom.
 

Oceanprayers

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If man can have faith only as a result of God giving him faith then;

1) such makes God culpable for the faithless/lost when He has no such culpability. Jesus was not fair nor just nor righteous in condemning those who had "little faith" (Matthew 8:26) when Jesus should have criticized God for failing to give those disciples sufficient faith.

2) the Bible teaches "one faith" (Ephesians 4:4-5), one system of faith that is truth (John 17:17) and truth never contradicts itself. Therefore if God gives men faith then He would give men the same 'like' faith....the same kind of faith. Then all those with their God given faith would all understand the Bible alike, there would be no contradictions for God is not the author of confusion. Forums as this would not exist and all the 1000's of religious groups with their all contradicting faiths would not exist with millions of people debating that one system of faith for all would be understanding it alike for all would have been given the same like faith/understanding. If God gave men faith then all those men would be of the "same mind", all would "speak the same thing" (1 Corinthians 1:10) and all would walk by the "same rule" (Philippians 3:16).

3) Hebrews 12:2 "our" is not in the original text and should not be in the verse. It should be rendered 'Author and finisher of 'the faith'. Jesus is author of the NT that teaches one faith, one system of faith. Jude 1:3 contend for "the faith" the one gospel system of faith that Christ Authored.

4) faith comes by hearing the word of God (Romans 10:17) without that word man could not have faith. But since God graciously gave man His word, God has in that sense given man the means to have faith through the word. Since God graciously gave man His word, that means God has fairly granted access to faith to all men, not just some.
If man can have faith only as a result of God giving him faith then;

1) such makes God culpable for the faithless/lost when He has no such culpability. Jesus was not fair nor just nor righteous in condemning those who had "little faith" (Matthew 8:26) when Jesus should have criticized God for failing to give those disciples sufficient faith.

2) the Bible teaches "one faith" (Ephesians 4:4-5), one system of faith that is truth (John 17:17) and truth never contradicts itself. Therefore if God gives men faith then He would give men the same 'like' faith....the same kind of faith. Then all those with their God given faith would all understand the Bible alike, there would be no contradictions for God is not the author of confusion. Forums as this would not exist and all the 1000's of religious groups with their all contradicting faiths would not exist with millions of people debating that one system of faith for all would be understanding it alike for all would have been given the same like faith/understanding. If God gave men faith then all those men would be of the "same mind", all would "speak the same thing" (1 Corinthians 1:10) and all would walk by the "same rule" (Philippians 3:16).

3) Hebrews 12:2 "our" is not in the original text and should not be in the verse. It should be rendered 'Author and finisher of 'the faith'. Jesus is author of the NT that teaches one faith, one system of faith. Jude 1:3 contend for "the faith" the one gospel system of faith that Christ Authored.

4) faith comes by hearing the word of God (Romans 10:17) without that word man could not have faith. But since God graciously gave man His word, God has in that sense given man the means to have faith through the word. Since God graciously gave man His word, that means God has fairly granted access to faith to all men, not just some.
What about the status of Elect?
 

Ernest T. Bass

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No it must not be due to a decree of God. It is due to teh4 sin nature being completely unable to repent unless acted upon by god HImself. The bible is clear the natual man cannot please god (Rom.8), repentance pleases God, ergo the natural man in and of thmelves cannot repent.

This would make God culpable for the impenitent when He is not. Those who are lost are so for their own free will choice in choosing to not repent. Then on judgment day, God will hand them a sentences of eternal condemnation which fits the free will choice those men made not to repent.


Ronald Nolette said:
Yes Paul was saying that all men are sinners, but He also said this:

Romans 3
King James Version

3 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?

2 Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.

God had a covenant relationship with teh nation of Israel! that did not mean every Jew born in th eold covenant was automatically saved. but the age of grace began with the church! Though God has shown grace since Adam. God dealt with Israel far differently than He deals with th echurch.



Well I am only dealing with what is called teh five points of Calvinism known by the acronym TULIP. And God never forsakes those He elects to salvation. The five points does not deal with this so therefore your argument is moot.



Exactly! He is showing than man made beliefs do not override the word of God! Just like christians man made belief that unsaved man has free will and that believers can lose their salvastion !



Paul is simply showing that god is in control of all choices on earth!



And He never did! Having a covenant relationship with the nation did not mean automatic salvation!




YOu need to learn the meaning of how Jews use the word hate. Here it simply means Jacob is preferred!



You tried to use Romans 9 to "prove" the Calvinistic idea of salvation by election when Romans chpts 9-10 show elect Jews being cast off and once non-elect Gentiles being saved. Now you are backing off that when you post "God had a covenant relationship with teh nation of Israel! that did not mean every Jew born in th eold covenant was automatically saved.'??? So now just some Jews were elected and not all???

-- I demonstrated from the Bible giving examples that "hate" does not refer only to an emotional type of hate in the Bible but does refer to less favor or less love. Paul quotes From Malachi 1 and the individuals Esau and Jacob had been dead fro centuries by this times. So the words 'hate' and 'love' are being directed at the descendants of Jacob and Esau not at the two individuals. In the context, the Edomites are the ones "hated" and they are being called by the name "Esau" (Genesis 36:1; Genesis 36:8). It is not uncommon in the OT for a nation (Edom) to be called after its progenitor (Esau). There is no "hate" to be found in Malachi 1 for the individual Esau.

-- if the choice of Jacob over Esau implies Esau being eternally lost and Jacob saved, then that holds true for their descendants....all Edomites are lost for none were chosen and all Israelites saved for they were all chosen. Yet Calvinistic election contradicts Paul for Paul goes on to point out most of the CHOSEN Israelites were lost, just a remnant saved. So most of Jacob's elect descendants were lost. And the thrust of Romans 9 is Paul arguing and justifying God in casting off elect people. Then we have God choosing to save the once non-elect Gentiles.
Romans chpts 9-10 is very anti of Calvinisms' idea of salvation by election.

-- even though Esau and his descendants, Ishmael, the Gentiles were not of God's chosen under the OT law, even though they were alienated from the chosen commonwealth of Israel and were excluded from that "covenant of promise "(Ephesians 2:12) this did not mean they were all automatically, unconditionally lost. For we know that believing Gentiles at that time, though not of the elect, found justification from God as Rahab, James 2.

-- God made a distinction between children with the same father but different mothers (Isaac and Ismael). God made a distinction between children with the same father and mother (Jacob and Esau) and God made distinctions between Jew and Jew. And God's distinction is nowhere said to be based upon merit, not based upon physical descent, not based upon a random, unconditional choice God made before the world began but based upon faith (Romans 9:32) and it was within the free will control of each and every Jews to have faith or not. Again, faith is the dividing line between God's chosen (those who choose to have faith) and the lost (those who choose not to have faith) and not a random, unconditional choice God made for each man before the world began. Not a hint of Calvinism in Romans 9 - 11.
 
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stunnedbygrace

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I guess either idea is sustained in the bible.
We choose to have faith or God alone bestows faith.

Technically, by grace through faith and that not of yourself.
Then there are the many verses that say different variations of: I chose you, He has mercy on who He will have mercy on, you have been chosen, etc.


But we have some doctrines that cause some to do harm to themselves and assert that it was of themselves and it leads them into arrogance and blaming blind men for their blindness.
 

DancesWithGnostics

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Total Depravity. Arminius believed in it - but I doubt that the way many describe it would be held by him and Wesley. Man finding God on his own would be Pelagianism, and is bogus. Prevenient Grace has been put forth as a common grace that enables even the unregenerate to seek God. Calvinists say that God regenerates a person and that enables a person to believe. Arminians say that God enables a person to believe with prevenient grace - then they believe and it is after belief that they are regenerated. The two camps just reverse the order of belief and regeneration. I believe belief comes before regeneration.

Technically, by grace through faith and that not of yourself.

There are also many verses that say variations of "choose ye this day". choose life", etc.

Who sinned - that this man was born blind?
 
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Oceanprayers

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If we are made totally depraved, unable to seek God ourselves because we are natural man,woman, isn't that God's doing as creator?

And then he tells us it is all his doing when we come to be saved from that condition?
 

Oceanprayers

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I don't see both can be happening at the same time. Like light cannot be off and on at the same time, it must be one or the other.
I know God is not culpable for the faithless.
If he's culpable for the faithful wouldn't that make him culpable for those he doesn't bestow with faith?
 

DancesWithGnostics

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isn't that God's doing as creator?

got some sticky wickets there, oceanprayers.

Adam and Eve did not START OUT totally depraved

I personally don't believe it is "all his doing" when we come to be saved - in some sense we have to ask and accept - we are in some synergy with God; synergy is a beautiful thing - not some heresy to be avoided
 

Oceanprayers

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got some sticky wickets there, oceanprayers.

Adam and Eve did not START OUT totally depraved

I personally don't believe it is "all his doing" when we come to be saved - in some sense we have to ask and accept - we are in some synergy with God; synergy is a beautiful thing - not some heresy to be avoided
I also don't believe Adam and Eve were made totally depraved. I do believe they were created innocent. And that's why they did not know the difference between right and wrong, good from evil.

What's hard to wrap my head around is God putting a forbidden fruit in the Eden he created and then judged good. Especially when he is the reason for everything that exists and occurs.