Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?

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St. SteVen

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Paul referred to these consorts as wives as a backhanded slap against the Roman culture that looked at Jewish culture with disdain for their polygamy.
That's interesting.
How did you arrive at that conclusion?
I see no prohibition of polygamy in the church that I am aware of.
Nor do I recall it in Judaism.

/
 

JohnDB

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That's interesting.
How did you arrive at that conclusion?
I see no prohibition of polygamy in the church that I am aware of.
Nor do I recall it in Judaism.

/
It's not a prohibition...
There's nothing wrong with polygamy as far as God cares. But it is against societal norms today. So I really really do not recommend engaging in the practice. It's also illegal...so I really really don't believe it to be a good thing to engage in. The English speaking world has all sorts of safety net social programs so the need for polygamy has been removed.

Paul was saying that if a man has a plural marriage that he is so busy trying to please his wives and earn an income that he doesn't have the time to work in the church. (Which is true) And working in the church is a part time job that requires at least 20 hours each week if not more.
 
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JohnDB

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How did you arrive at that conclusion
Because the letter is addressed to Timothy personally and Paul, prone to sarcasm, is speaking to a friend in a relaxed manner and not so formally as he would to an entire congregation. Context is king.

Also Timothy was in Ephesus...the banking capital. Where wealthy men were extremely common. A man with a wife and a consort was going to be extremely common in that city. Making the task of appointing a deacon rather difficult.

Rich people like to be in charge of everything.... because they are rich they feel qualified and entitled. (As if wealth mattered to God)
To the men at Ephesus it would have been nothing more than a popularity contest and the real work of being an elder/deacon in the church would have been left undone.
 
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St. SteVen

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Paul was saying that if a man has a plural marriage that he is so busy trying to please his wives and earn an income that he doesn't have the time to work in the church. (Which is true) And working in the church is a part time job that requires at least 20 hours each week if not more.
Agree.
It's a practical measure. Thanks.

/
 
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The Learner

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Why does the Apostle Paul require that
church Elders be the "husband of one wife" if
polygamy wasn't common in the church?

Titus 1:5-6 ESV
This is why I left you in Crete, so that you might
put what remained into order, and appoint elders in every town as I directed you—
6 if anyone is above reproach, the husband of one wife,[a]
and his children are believers[b] and not open to the charge of debauchery or insubordination.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

As I understand it, polygamy laws are supposedly based on the Bible.

Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?

When did this change?

/
I am guessing there were divorces back then.
 
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quietthinker

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Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that poly gamy was common in the early church?​

Imagine having two maybe three, even four Poly's in the same household ......particularly if they are also known as gamy; It'd be enough to drive any man to distraction!
 
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St. SteVen

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I am guessing there were divorces back then.
Let's explore that.
I think we have a complete misunderstanding of divorce based on poor biblical translation.
Which has led to some holding a position that remarried men are disqualified for leadership.
Thus shooting ourselves in the foot.

Compare these two translations. The NIV and the KJV
The NIV reads "sexual immorality" while the KJV reads "fornication".
The term "fornication" is specific to sexual immorality BEFORE marriage. (not after)
And there is reference to this in the law. See below.

Matthew 5:32 NIV
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality,
makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 5:32 KJV
But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication,
causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

In this case a man has falsely accused his new bride of fornication. (broken hymen?)

Deuteronomy 22:13-18 NIV
If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her
14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying,
I married this woman, but when I approached her,
I did not find proof of her virginity,”
15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to
the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin.
16 Her father will say to the elders,
“I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her.
17 Now he has slandered her and said, ‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’
But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.”
Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town,
18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

With all this in mind, what should we conclude about divorce
and remarried men are disqualified for leadership?

Jesus only allows divorce in the case of fornication.
Adultery is grounds for forgiveness, not divorce.

Just to be clear. I believe in fidelity in marriage.
I just celebrated my 44th anniversary. (to my first and only wife)

/
 
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St. SteVen

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Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that poly gamy was common in the early church?​

Imagine having two maybe three, even four Poly's in the same household ......particularly if they are also known as gamy; It'd be enough to drive any man to distraction!
Imagine all the nylons hanging up in the bathroom. - LOL

/
 

The Learner

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Let's explore that.
I think we have a complete misunderstanding of divorce based on poor biblical translation.
Which has led to some holding a position that remarried men are disqualified for leadership.
Thus shooting ourselves in the foot.

Compare these two translations. The NIV and the KJV
The NIV reads "sexual immorality" while the KJV reads "fornication".
The term "fornication" is specific to sexual immorality BEFORE marriage. (not after)
And there is reference to this in the law. See below.

Matthew 5:32 NIV
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality,
makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 5:32 KJV
But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication,
causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

In this case a man has falsely accused his new bride of fornication. (broken hymen?)

Deuteronomy 22:13-18 NIV
If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her
14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying,
I married this woman, but when I approached her,
I did not find proof of her virginity,”
15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to
the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin.
16 Her father will say to the elders,
“I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her.
17 Now he has slandered her and said, ‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’
But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.”
Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town,
18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

With all this in mind, what should we conclude about divorce
and remarried men are disqualified for leadership?

Jesus only allows divorce in the case of fornication.
Adultery is grounds for forgiveness, not divorce.

Just to be clear. I believe in fidelity in marriage.
I just celebrated my 44th anniversary. (to my first and only wife)

/
I did not have time to look at Divorce.

Matthew 19

Easy-to-Read Version

Jesus Teaches About Divorce​

19 After Jesus said all these things, he left Galilee. He went into the area of Judea on the other side of the Jordan River. 2 Many people followed him. Jesus healed the sick people there.
3 Some Pharisees came to Jesus. They tried to make him say something wrong. They asked him, “Is it right for a man to divorce his wife for any reason he chooses?”
4 Jesus answered, “Surely you have read this in the Scriptures: When God made the world, ‘he made people male and female.’[a] 5 And God said, ‘That is why a man will leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife. And the two people will become one.’[b] 6 So they are no longer two, but one. God has joined them together, so no one should separate them.”
7 The Pharisees asked, “Then why did Moses give a command allowing a man to divorce his wife by writing a certificate of divorce[c]?”
8 Jesus answered, “Moses allowed you to divorce your wives because you refused to accept God’s teaching. But divorce was not allowed in the beginning. 9 I tell you that whoever divorces his wife, except for the problem of sexual sin, and marries another woman is guilty of adultery.”
10 The followers said to Jesus, “If that is the only reason a man can divorce his wife, it is better not to marry.”
11 He answered, “This statement is true for some, but not for everyone—only for those who have been given this gift. 12 There are different reasons why some men don’t marry.[d] Some were born without the ability to produce children. Others were made that way later in life. And others have given up marriage because of God’s kingdom. This is for anyone who is able to accept it.”

Is an OT Priest similiar to an NT Elder? I am often tired, and don't think straight.

Leviticus 21:7
“A priest serves God in a special way, so he must not marry a woman who has had sexual relations with any other man. He must not marry a prostitute or a divorced woman.

Aside: I would not mind marrying born again reformed prostitute. She would know things most women don't. lol

Malachi 2:16
The Lord, the God of Israel, says, “I hate divorce, and I hate the cruel things that men do. So protect your spiritual unity. Don’t cheat on your wife.”


1 Corinthians 7:11
But if a wife does leave, she should remain single or get back together with her husband. And a husband should not divorce his wife.

Wife is on her way home, I did not have time to check context.
 

St. SteVen

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Let's explore that.
I think we have a complete misunderstanding of divorce based on poor biblical translation.
Which has led to some holding a position that remarried men are disqualified for leadership.
Thus shooting ourselves in the foot.

Compare these two translations. The NIV and the KJV
The NIV reads "sexual immorality" while the KJV reads "fornication".
The term "fornication" is specific to sexual immorality BEFORE marriage. (not after)
And there is reference to this in the law. See below.

Matthew 5:32 NIV
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality,
makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 5:32 KJV
But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication,
causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

In this case a man has falsely accused his new bride of fornication. (broken hymen?)

Deuteronomy 22:13-18 NIV
If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her
14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying,
I married this woman, but when I approached her,
I did not find proof of her virginity,”
15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to
the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin.
16 Her father will say to the elders,
“I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her.
17 Now he has slandered her and said, ‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’
But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.”
Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town,
18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

With all this in mind, what should we conclude about divorce
and remarried men are disqualified for leadership?

Jesus only allows divorce in the case of fornication.
Adultery is grounds for forgiveness, not divorce.

Just to be clear. I believe in fidelity in marriage.
I just celebrated my 44th anniversary. (to my first and only wife)

/
This previous post has some bearing on the current discussion about adultery and divorce.

/ Reposted below.

Didn't work. Reply to post #147

Let's explore that.
I think we have a complete misunderstanding of divorce based on poor biblical translation.
Which has led to some holding a position that remarried men are disqualified for leadership.
Thus shooting ourselves in the foot.

Compare these two translations. The NIV and the KJV
The NIV reads "sexual immorality" while the KJV reads "fornication".
The term "fornication" is specific to sexual immorality BEFORE marriage. (not after)
And there is reference to this in the law. See below.

Matthew 5:32 NIV
But I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality,
makes her the victim of adultery, and anyone who marries a divorced woman commits adultery.

Matthew 5:32 KJV
But I say unto you, That whosoever shall put away his wife, saving for the cause of fornication,
causeth her to commit adultery: and whosoever shall marry her that is divorced committeth adultery.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

In this case a man has falsely accused his new bride of fornication. (broken hymen?)

Deuteronomy 22:13-18 NIV
If a man takes a wife and, after sleeping with her, dislikes her
14 and slanders her and gives her a bad name, saying,
I married this woman, but when I approached her,
I did not find proof of her virginity,”
15 then the young woman’s father and mother shall bring to
the town elders at the gate proof that she was a virgin.
16 Her father will say to the elders,
“I gave my daughter in marriage to this man, but he dislikes her.
17 Now he has slandered her and said, ‘I did not find your daughter to be a virgin.’
But here is the proof of my daughter’s virginity.”
Then her parents shall display the cloth before the elders of the town,
18 and the elders shall take the man and punish him.

~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~

With all this in mind, what should we conclude about divorce
and remarried men are disqualified for leadership?

Jesus only allows divorce in the case of fornication.
Adultery is grounds for forgiveness, not divorce.

Just to be clear. I believe in fidelity in marriage.
I just celebrated my 44th anniversary. (to my first and only wife)

/
 
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quietthinker

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Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?​

It means, get a manageable act together.
 
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St. SteVen

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Does the "husband of one wife" requirement mean that polygamy was common in the early church?​

It means, get a manageable act together.
I think my wife has this figured out. She's "hard of hearing".

Which means, half the time she can't hear me, and the other half of the time she ignores me.

/
 
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St. SteVen

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and thats manageable?:doldrums:
Just a joke I created about our relationship.
We actually get along great. Married 44 years now.

And we don't play the "You said..." games.
We clarify what we THOUGHT we heard before continuing.
"Did I hear you correctly?" or "This is what I thought I heard you say."

It's very manageable, I think. Every couple has their own struggles.
We are VERY supportive of each other.

/
 
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quietthinker

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Just a joke I created about our relationship.
We actually get along great. Married 44 years now.

And we don't play the "You said..." games.
We clarify what we THOUGHT we heard before continuing.
"Did I hear you correctly?" or "This is what I thought I heard you say."

It's very manageable, I think. Every couple has their own struggles.
We are VERY supportive of each other.

/
sounds like you're on a winner, Steven
 
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Behold

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Why does the Apostle Paul require that
church Elders be the "husband of one wife"

/

At some point if you actually use a verse in context, vs, yanking it out of context to create your idea of a "click bait" Topic...

Do you think that will ever happen @St. SteVen ?

So, Your verse is Paul explaining the requirements of selecting a Pastor or Bishop... for a Local Congregation.

"husband of one wife" means..>"NEVER BEEN DIVORCED"< and it means "HE IS MARRIED"..

So, when selecting a Pastor, those are 2 of the requirements and there are more.

Also of Note, is that a WOMAN can't be the '" Husband of one wife".... which means that a woman can't be a Pastor of a Church,

This is the only denied office.

This is a Male only position., and this rubs some people into a emotional frenzy and melt down, because the Bible does not agree with Hyper-Liberalism, or Political Correctness.

And reader if you are that one, then let me assure you that Women are qualified for all other offices...

But the Pastor, is a Male only situation, according to the NT.

See, this world is always trying to define things, situations, relations, as "someone is being offended", and in that way the /Devil can keep the confusion fires burning hot.
So, the world says...."Women can be Pastors of a Local Church", but the Bible says that is not the case.

The Bible, the NT .. Paul's Doctrine, is the final authority for the Body of Christ.
 
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