Easter Is Near

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Robert Gwin

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Just as I thought - you CAN'T show me any Scriptural poroof for your false claims. You guys can't even prove Sola Scriptura from the Scriptures . . .

And ONCE again, Einstein - Rev. 22:18-19 refers to the Book of Revelation and NOIT the entire Bible.
God forces no one to worship Him Bread, you are free to worship as you desire. I do not take religious rites and festivals dedicated to a god or goddess and apply them to my God however. I simply made it known where it came from, what you do with the information is your choice.
 

BreadOfLife

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God forces no one to worship Him Bread, you are free to worship as you desire. I do not take religious rites and festivals dedicated to a god or goddess and apply them to my God however. I simply made it known where it came from, what you do with the information is your choice.
No, you simply repeated a falsehood.
Don't be so gullible . . .
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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https://www.christianityboard.com/.../tyndale-and.../...
Acts 12 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools
Tyndale Acts 12:4 Hyrode put Peter in the preson .. to be kepte entendynge after ester to brynge him forth to the people.
4ὃν καὶ πιάσας ἔθετο εἰς φυλακήν .. βουλόμενος μετὰ τὸ πάσχα ἀναγαγεῖν αὐτὸν τῷ λαῷ.
12 - Nestle 1904 Greek New Testament
Alright, Tyndale translated the word τὸ πάσχα with the ‘gentile’ word ‘ester’ / ‘Easter’. The etymology of the word was not Tyndale’s reason. He was wrong.
Tyndale obviously did not try to point out harmony or discord between something everybody of his time and language and Protestant persuasion called Easter and as a matter of course accepted was Biblical and Christian, and something else, which everybody ought to have known but did not know was pagan and not Biblical and against the Christian Faith. It was not Tyndale's purpose or intention and could not have been while he was like everybody else, oblivious to the true facts and implications of the case.
Would Tyndale have used the word for the Antichrist’s perverse celebration of the feast of Ishtar the pagan goddess, had he been aware of its true origins and nature? Never!
But the purpose with this discussion is the Pilgrimmer’s allegations contained in the quotation in #1 and the topic-heading to it.
 

GerhardEbersoehn

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Acts 27
9Now when much time (of the year) was spent,
9 Ἱκανοῦ δὲ χρόνου διαγενομένου
and when sailing was now already dangerous,
αὶ ὄντος ἤδη ἐπισφαλοῦς τοῦ πλοὸς
because the FALL was now already past,
διὰ τὸ καὶ τὴν νηστείαν ἤδη παρεληλυθέναι,
Paul admonished / warned them…
παρῄνει ὁ Παῦλος…
12And because the haven was not commodious
12 ἀνευθέτου δὲ τοῦ λιμένος ὑπάρχοντος
for to winter in,
πρὸς παραχειμασίαν οἱ πλείονες
the majority of them advised to depart thence also
ἔθεντο βουλὴν ἀναχθῆναι ἐκεῖθεν
if by any means because of Fall fast approaching end,
εἴ πως δύναιντο καταντήσαντες,
they might keep sailing as far as Phenice an (safe) haven of Crete.
εἰς Φοίνικα παραχειμάσαι λιμένα τῆς Κρήτης.
FURTHER COMMENT SUPERFLUOUS, <easter> IS WRONG!!
 
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APAK

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https://www.christianityboard.com/.../tyndale-and.../...
Acts 12 - TYN Bible - Bible Study Tools
Tyndale Acts 12:4 Hyrode put Peter in the preson .. to be kepte entendynge after ester to brynge him forth to the people.
4ὃν καὶ πιάσας ἔθετο εἰς φυλακήν .. βουλόμενος μετὰ τὸ πάσχα ἀναγαγεῖν αὐτὸν τῷ λαῷ.
12 - Nestle 1904 Greek New Testament
Alright, Tyndale translated the word τὸ πάσχα with the ‘gentile’ word ‘ester’ / ‘Easter’. The etymology of the word was not Tyndale’s reason. He was wrong.
Tyndale obviously did not try to point out harmony or discord between something everybody of his time and language and Protestant persuasion called Easter and as a matter of course accepted was Biblical and Christian, and something else, which everybody ought to have known but did not know was pagan and not Biblical and against the Christian Faith. It was not Tyndale's purpose or intention and could not have been while he was like everybody else, oblivious to the true facts and implications of the case.
Would Tyndale have used the word for the Antichrist’s perverse celebration of the feast of Ishtar the pagan goddess, had he been aware of its true origins and nature? Never!
But the purpose with this discussion is the Pilgrimmer’s allegations contained in the quotation in #1 and the topic-heading to it.
I agree, Tyndale is not the rascal whose intention was to introduce the pagan Easter day into the holy writ of the KJV Bible.

In Acts 12:4.; The word "Easter" is a mistranslation of the Greek word "Passover," which is used 28 times throughout the New Testament and 29 times in the Greek Old Testament.
 

Davy

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Ever wonder why people create a holy day and name it after a pagan goddess who really doesn't exist, and practice rituals dedicated to her, and label it Christian when it isn't even in the Bible sir?
The name Easter does originate with an ancient pagan fertility ritual. When pagans converted to Jesus Christ long ago, they kept the name and it became a tradition in the Church. But the actual time which Christ's crucifixion represents per God's Word is a 'Christian' Passover, because that is how Apostle Paul referred to Jesus in regard to it, and to that day per 1 Corinthians 5:7-8.

1 Cor 5:7-8
7 Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened.
For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:

8 Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
KJV
 

Davy

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EVERY year, this becomes a thing where people try to reckon 3 literal days and nights. Unfortunately, you fail to understand that to a Jew, ANY part of a day or night becomes a day or night.

1. Jesus was crucified on a Friday, butured before sundown
That's 1 day and night.
2.
He was in the tomb all day Saturday.
Another day and night.
3. He rose on Sunday.
Another day and night.

Thats THREE days and night by MY count - and by Jewish reckoning of day and night.

3 days and 3 nights is what Jesus Himself said, so you might want to rethink just who you are mocking about that. And the type calendar you are wanting to use, the Gregorian calendar, didn't even go into effect until the 16th century A.D.
 

BreadOfLife

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3 days and 3 nights is what Jesus Himself said, so you might want to rethink just who you are mocking about that. And the type calendar you are wanting to use, the Gregorian calendar, didn't even go into effect until the 16th century A.D.
The same is true, not matter which calendar you are using – Gregorian or Julian.
The fact remains that a day is reckoned to ANY portion from sunrise to sundown – and a nigh as ANY portion from sunset to sunrise.

When Esther was to appear before the king without being summoned (Esther 3:4) – she asked the Jews to pray and fast for 3 days and 3 nights. She went to see the king ON the 3td day – not after 3 days.
 

Davy

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The same is true, not matter which calendar you are using – Gregorian or Julian.
The fact remains that a day is reckoned to ANY portion from sunrise to sundown – and a nigh as ANY portion from sunset to sunrise.

When Esther was to appear before the king without being summoned (Esther 3:4) – she asked the Jews to pray and fast for 3 days and 3 nights. She went to see the king ON the 3td day – not after 3 days.

And when Jesus specifically said "three days and three nights", that is what He was referring to, a 12 hour period for daytime, and a 12 hour period for night-time, and the full day counted as being from sunset to sunset.

Trying to claim Jesus was crucified on a Friday does not equal a period of "three days and three nights" to Sunday morning.
 

BreadOfLife

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And when Jesus specifically said "three days and three nights", that is what He was referring to, a 12 hour period for daytime, and a 12 hour period for night-time, and the full day counted as being from sunset to sunset.

Trying to claim Jesus was crucified on a Friday does not equal a period of "three days and three nights" to Sunday morning.
And apparently, the Jewish reckoning of what 3 days and 3 nights means went right OVER your head.

Did the people were to pray for 3 FULL days and 3 FULL nigh for Esther before she went before the king? NO.
They understood that ANY part of a day counted as a day and ANY part of a night counted as a night.

Jesus never said "Three 24-hour periods."
 

Davy

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And apparently, the Jewish reckoning of what 3 days and 3 nights means went right OVER your head.
I covered its meaning per Bible Scripture and... per the Hebrew reckoning of the time at Jesus' 1st coming. Apparently, that understanding never even made it to 'your head'.
 

BreadOfLife

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I covered its meaning per Bible Scripture and... per the Hebrew reckoning of the time at Jesus' 1st coming. Apparently, that understanding never even made it to 'your head'.
You covered nothing.
All you did was deny the fact that the Scriptural and Jewish reckoning of what "3 days and 3 nights" means.

I guess ignorance really IS bliss . . .
 

Davy

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You covered nothing.
All you did was deny the fact that the Scriptural and Jewish reckoning of what "3 days and 3 nights" means.

I guess ignorance really IS bliss . . .

It's so easy to count like Jesus said...


Matt 12:40
40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be
three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
KJV


3 days (3 each 12 hour daylight periods) and 3 nights (3 each 12 hour night periods). Reckoned per the HEBREW calendar, sunset to sunset.

Wednesday Nissan 14 at evening - Jesus crucified per the passover requirement.
Wednesday sunset to Thursday dawn = 1st 12 hr. night period.
Thursday dawn to Thursday sunset = 1st 12 hr. day period.
Thursday sunset to Friday dawn = 2nd night period.
Friday dawn to Friday sunset = 2nd daytime period.
Friday sunset to Saturday dawn = 3rd night time period.
Saturday dawn to Saturday sunset = 3rd daytime period.
Saturday sunset to Sunday dawn = Jesus rose from the dead.

Thus it is IMPOSSIBLE for Jesus to have been crucified on a Friday. Those who push that are not following The Bible, but follow their own doctrines outside The Bible.
 

BreadOfLife

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It's so easy to count like Jesus said...

Matt 12:40
40 For as Jonas was three days and three nights in the whale's belly; so shall the Son of man be
three days and three nights in the heart of the earth.
KJV


3 days (3 each 12 hour daylight periods) and 3 nights (3 each 12 hour night periods). Reckoned per the HEBREW calendar, sunset to sunset.

Wednesday Nissan 14 at evening - Jesus crucified per the passover requirement.
Wednesday sunset to Thursday dawn = 1st 12 hr. night period.
Thursday dawn to Thursday sunset = 1st 12 hr. day period.
Thursday sunset to Friday dawn = 2nd night period.
Friday dawn to Friday sunset = 2nd daytime period.
Friday sunset to Saturday dawn = 3rd night time period.
Saturday dawn to Saturday sunset = 3rd daytime period.
Saturday sunset to Sunday dawn = Jesus rose from the dead.

Thus it is IMPOSSIBLE for Jesus to have been crucified on a Friday. Those who push that are not following The Bible, but follow their own doctrines outside The Bible.
WRONG again.

You refuse to accept the Biblical truth that ANY part of a day or night is reckoned as a day or night to the Jewish people.

I already gave you the example of Esther who told the people to fast fot THREE DAYS and THREE NIGHTS (Esther 4:16) – and they did so for THREE and a HALF days.

In 2 Chron. 10:5-12, Reboham tells the people to come back AFTER a period of THREE DAYS to see him. They came back ON the THIRD day.

Finally – according to the Jewish Encyclopedia:

In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day.”
[DAY (Hebrew, "yom"), by: Emil G. Hirsch, Michael Friedländer]

You LOSE this argument because you are erroneously using 21st century American logic to dissect an ancient culture from thousands of years ago.
 

Davy

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WRONG again.

You refuse to accept the Biblical truth that ANY part of a day or night is reckoned as a day or night to the Jewish people.

I already gave you the example of Esther who told the people to fast fot THREE DAYS and THREE NIGHTS (Esther 4:16) – and they did so for THREE and a HALF days.

In 2 Chron. 10:5-12, Reboham tells the people to come back AFTER a period of THREE DAYS to see him. They came back ON the THIRD day.

Finally – according to the Jewish Encyclopedia:

In Jewish communal life part of a day is at times reckoned as one day; e.g., the day of the funeral, even when the latter takes place late in the afternoon, is counted as the first of the seven days of mourning; a short time in the morning of the seventh day is counted as the seventh day; circumcision takes place on the eighth day, even though of the first day only a few minutes remained after the birth of the child, these being counted as one day.”
[DAY (Hebrew, "yom"), by: Emil G. Hirsch, Michael Friedländer]


You LOSE this argument because you are erroneously using 21st century American logic to dissect an ancient culture from thousands of years ago.

That is all FALSE teaching, and does not stay within God's written Word. The "three days and three nights" Jesus said represent 2 each 12 hour periods, one for the daytime, and one for the nighttime which equals one calendar day.

It's not like Jesus was up at the Arctic where the periods of daylight and night can be different, but even then still equal a 24hr. day.