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No YOU DO NOT. You deny, deny, deny what is found in Scripture.I base my claim on what is found in Scripture, not what is read into Scripture.
A person who goes through the door is no longer ungodly
Acts 3:13 The God of Abraham, and of Isaac, and of Jacob, the God of our fathers, hath glorified his Son Yeshua; whom ye delivered up, and denied him in the presence of Pilate, when he was determined to let him go.
The work Yeshua did in John 5 was the spiritual work of healing which was never against the law of YHWH, but only against the foolish man-made laws of the Jews which Yeshua rebuked them for. Yeshua NEVER did forbidden work on the Sabbath and he NEVER broke it. That is why he was sinless. Nor did he cause the lame man to sin by picking up his mat. YHWH never forbid such an action. It was the foolish Jewish man-made law that said carrying anything on the Sabbath was forbidden. They took that so far that a person could not carry a handkerchief in his pocket!
John testified under inspiration of the Holy Spirit that the Jews persecuted Yeshua for healing on the Sabbath because that is how they falsely viewed his actions. They also falsely accused him of making himself equal to God by saying God was his Father. Saying God is one's Father does NOT make one equal to God. I say God is my Father and God is my Abba, but that does not mean I am His equal. Yeshua even taught us to call God "our Father". Are we all guilty of making ourselves equal to God??
Also, Hebrews 7:12 does NOT mean the law was changed allowing Yeshua or us to break the Sabbath. The law that was changed was the law forbidding anyone to be high priest except for a son of Aaron. It was changed via the oath of Psalm 110:4 which now allows a priest after the order of Melchizedek to be high priest.
You have a lot more studying to do young man.
YHWH became flesh ONLY in the minds of deceived people.
First a lesson in logic and reading comprehension...(before the Holy Spirit inspires it would help if people learned some reading comprehension)
If a text says..."Thus says Jim, I want to let you know that Jim has sent me. My name is Jim and Jim has sent me."
In the above quotes...how many Jim's are there?
Jim Jr. and Jim Sr.
There is the possibility of only one (if the person is talking like Jesus did, in referring to the Son of Man in third Person when referring to Himself). Two is also possible.First a lesson in logic and reading comprehension...(before the Holy Spirit inspires it would help if people learned some reading comprehension)
If a text says..."Thus says Jim, I want to let you know that Jim has sent me. My name is Jim and Jim has sent me."
In the above quotes...how many Jim's are there?
Zech. 2: 8 For thus says the Lord of hosts: “He sent Me after glory, to the nations which plunder you; for he who touches you touches the apple of His eye. 9 For surely I will shake My hand against them, and they shall become spoil for their servants. Then you will know that the Lord of hosts has sent Me.
Again, YHWH of hosts sent Yeshua in verse 11. All the "Lord"s in both verses = "YHWH" in the Hebrew text. YHWH and Yeshua will both dwell in our midst as Revelation 21:22 shows. Verse 10 would be Yeshua quoting the words of YHWH. Verse 11 would be the words of Yeshua concerning himself.10 “Sing and rejoice, O daughter of Zion! For behold, I am coming and I will dwell in your midst,” says the Lord. 11 “Many nations shall be joined to the Lord in that day, and they shall become My people. And I will dwell in your midst. Then you will know that the Lord of hosts has sent Me to you.
...until the law sin was in the world,
"Until the law..." This is speaking of a period of time in which the law was not in effect
Man sinned in that he was independent of the Lord, but he didn't transgress
...sin was not imputed to him, because the law, not being present, didn't point him out as being a sinner.
Because man was not aware because of the law
I choose to believe Stranger on this one.
To impute means "to credit to one's account." That is the definition of impute.
You should read a man's entire post before responding to the first few sentences...Proverbs 18:13. I don't intend this as a rebuke per se...only as a tidbit of wisdom for future reference.
That is creative writing - it is not scripture to say that "Adam did not transgress"
Hi @BobRyan,
Sin is a principle that dwells within totally depraved man...it boils down to independence from the Lord.
As such, this element of independence could exist within the heart of man even when there is no law to discover it...until the law sin was in the world, but sin is not imputed where there is no law.
Notice the words, "Until the law..." This is speaking of a period of time in which the law was not in effect to show man his sin...which does not preclude that sin did not then exist in the heart of man. Man sinned in that he was independent of the Lord, but he didn't transgress...sin was not imputed to him, because the law, not being present, didn't point him out as being a sinner. Because man was not aware because of the law of his independent attitude. As soon as the law showed up, sin was imputed to man...it became transgression before the Lord because man was actually violating a commandment that he was aware of in his independence of the Lord.
Now I certainly believe that the law of the Lord is something that exists in eternity and that sin is also the transgression of that law. However, man, in the time from Adam to Moses, was unaware of this eternally existing law and therefore in violating it he was not transgressing...he was not trespassing where there was a "no trespassing" sign. He was trespassing in a place where someone had taken the sign down...and therefore God did not hold him as responsible for his law-breaking. And yet death still reigned in that time (from Adam to Moses), because the wages of sin is death, whether it is actual trespassing when there is a sign (transgression) or whether it is trespassing without a sign (simply sin). Because the eternal law in the heavenlies would dictate that it is a violation to trespass even when there is no sign (man should have realized that the presence of a fence was enough evidence that he shouldn't go over it)...nevertheless when standing before the judgment seat of Christ, the one who trespassed without a sign will not be held as responsible for his trespassing as the one who trespassed when there was a sign...as that is only fair in our eyes and our just God would not see it any differently.
Sorry I lost track of where the original post was located.Hi JbF
Please post my entire previous reply.
This sounds like I don't believe Jesus is LORD.
I do agree with you, except for "God the Father is Lord".
God the Father is LORD.
If someone is a worker of iniquity they are not born again. It is not that they are condemned for that they didn't obey the Lord; it is that they are condemned for that they were never born again. Their disobedience is only the evidence to all who witness their judgment that they were never saved.
There's a lot to cover here. A lot of error. The above statement isn't true...a person can begin in the Spirit and try being perfected in the flesh...through men's teachings. Iniquity is just mixture. So then it is quite easy to mix in truth with traditions or carnal notions. We are to DEPART from iniquity. That means that iniquity is always trying to get in. Those who keep iniquity out will be vessels of honour. Only people who have received grace have this challenge. Iniquity is a sin for Christians...not the world.
Now those who are not saved will be condemned for their disobedience; but only because they are not forgiven of all their sin and therefore their disobedience is still imputed to them.
Not at all. A Christian can be very disobedient. We can become altogether unfruitful.
Yes, God's righteousness is indeed imparted to those who are born again (Matthew 5:5, Romans 5:19, 1 John 3:7); however it is also imputed in justification.
This is a strange jumble... God's righteousness is not there until we enter into Him....not necessarily when we are born again. We must be baptized in the Spirit to receive that kind of power. Most Christians live their whole lives walking in their own power. We need to go to God for the full amount of grace and His righteousness.
Justification happens when we are born again...at redemption.
To him that worketh not, but believeth on him that justifieth the ungodly, his faith is counted for righteousness.
Isaiah 9:6, For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon his shoulder: and his name shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God, The Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace.
My Savior never sinned. Yours evidently did.Jesus claimed to be working on that day, which was the sabbath (John 5:17, John 5:9). So either He violated the sabbath or He was lying; which one was it?
Exodus 20:10 says clearly, in it (the sabbath) thou shalt not do any work.
It's right there, staring you in the face. You quoted John 1:14. Now all you have to do is BELIEVE IT.
Nothing strange here. Yeshua is speaking of a future time through prophecy as he has done elsewhere (Psalm 22:1 for example). He says YHWH of hosts sent him. That shows Yeshua is not YHWH of hosts.
Again, YHWH of hosts sent Yeshua in verse 11. All the "Lord"s in both verses = "YHWH" in the Hebrew text. YHWH and Yeshua will both dwell in our midst as Revelation 21:22 shows. Verse 10 would be Yeshua quoting the words of YHWH. Verse 11 would be the words of Yeshua concerning himself.
You have to know the how and why in order to have faith in something? It is like when Jesus said to a man, Unless you see signs and wonders, you will in no wise believe.I ‘see’ there are folks here having a good laugh and shouting down one individual again especially - @gadar perets .
Well I would like to challenge anyone to 'put up or shut up.'
As this subject is large and has much history, I will want to look at what several folks love to quote in ignorance – John Chapter 1.
So, to any serious takers and true believers in the word(s) of God:
Tell me how and why the Greek transliterated word ‘logos’ in John 1-2 and John 1:14 became Jesus Christ, let alone any human being?
If you can explicitly, clearly and logically answer these two questions successfully, with strict adherence to scripture, where I would be amazed, I will be the first to tell you I’ve been wrong all these years.
The Greek term ‘logos’ always means God’s inner words, messages, plans purposes etc., that are revealed to us in this world. It never means a person. God’s logos created the world and all that exists per John 1:3; executed through his own spirit. Jesus had zero input to it. Way before his time.
John 1:1-13 and 14 was deliberately misused to build a foundation for the trinity, especially the 2nd person by ignorant and pagan folks. They forced a new meaning for logos and called the human instrument and voice of God’s logos the actual logos.
Christ, the human being that possessed the power of God, became the voice and the key piece to the plan of salvation for mankind. The logos (word- God’s plan for mankind)) became human (flesh - to voice and execute this plan of God). That is why in the same verse 14 he is called ‘full/complete grace and truth.’ He carried the grace and truth of God in him and was grace for us, because he selflessly in love, atoned for our sins.
Christ became by his birth and mission to the cross and beyond the ‘word of God’ NOT THE WORD ITSELF. How can anyone believe otherwise is beyond my understanding?
(Rev 19:13) And he is dressed in a garment sprinkled with blood, and his name is called The Word of God. (NEV)
HE IS NOT THE WORD!!! He is the born son and instrument of God’s plan for mankind.
Blessing all,
APAK
You sound like a mohamedan
that sounded like a diversion
Nope. He didn't; because He is immutably the Lord God. He came as High Priest of the order of Melchizedec; not after the law of a carnal commandment but after the power of an endless life.Yes, a 100% human child is born to a human mother. The son is given to us by YHWH. YHWH puts the government upon his shoulders. The Hebrew for "the mighty God" is "el gibbor" which can be translated "mighty warrior" or "mighty el". Since Yeshua is NOT the "only true God" (John 17:3), the verse should not use "God" with a capital "G".
As for "Everlasting Father", there are at least 27 names in the Bible with the same Hebrew construction as in this verse. Each one means the "father of (something)." For example, Abishua means "father of plenty." Instead of translating the phrase as "father of eternity," the KJV reversed the sequence making the true meaning harder to discern. Several newer versions correct this mistake such as The Emphasized Bible, The Bible in Basic English, The New American Bible, The Holy Bible; A Translation From the Latin Vulgate in the Light of the Hebrew and Greek Originals, and The New English Bible, just to name a few. Yeshua is the father of eternity because eternal life comes to us through him. And so it is written in Hebrews 5:9, "And being made perfect, he became the author (or father) of eternal salvation unto all them that obey him;"
My Savior never sinned. Yours evidently did.