I just fell upon this...
John 1:2
HE was in the beginning with God...
this might be IT was in the beginning with God, which would be referring to the word, which is an IT and not a WHO.
Verse 3,,,all things came into being by IT. God spoke WORDS and the things He spoke came into being. In IT was life...in the WORD OF GOD.
Then in verse 9 John states that the true light came into the world and enlightened every man. Is this light still an IT? No, because then in verse 10 it says that the world did not know Him and in verse 11 John states that SOMETHING came to its own. Could this still be an IT?? It sounds more like a HE.
Verse 14....the WORD became FLESH.
Does this not refer to John 1:1?
This is how I understand that the WORD OF GOD,,,His thoughts,,,His words spoken...became flesh and that flesh is Jesus who always existed as the Word.
P.S. I'm not posting in response to your "put up or shut up"...I never would shout down gadar perets. He's an incredibly knowledgeable person...whether or not one agrees with him.
GodsGrace: You are at least more to the point that some other folks that beat around, or at least will not attempt to answer directly, because they really do not know how to answer. I just wish they were more honest and say this as fact.
Now John Chapter 1 is the touchstone for the Trinitarian thought and its foundation. If especially John 1:1-14 is shown to be a non-trinitarian thought, then the entire model or theory can be dumped into the trash.
The entire John Chapter 1 must be looked at as a whole, and
in context. Meaning who is the subject and object in each verse, and what is the point of what John was conveying. Was it to be very different from the other reporters where only John was just trying to make a statement that Jesus was God or the word? I do not think so. That would be quite shallow of John. It does not follow his style and other Chapters.
All the other reporters and other reports not in our hands today reported on the execution of the plan of salvation, beginning with the arrival of John the Baptist, the gospel on earth and by God using his son to complete the essential part of this plan.
Now John I admit was more poetic and symbolic in the use of his language. John wanted to tell us that God is the true savior, planner, mover and shaker of our salvation since creation of this world and before time. John wanted to include this preamble and stress this point in his opening words.
So, let me cursory address your verse 3 and 14…
John 1: 1-3 is about the mind of God in action as he used
it along with his in-exhaustive attributes of his own spirit to create everything in existence. John wanted to ensure the reader knew this before presenting John the Baptist. John also then wanted to ensure we knew that God transferred his word (plan/purpose) into the person, Jesus. He was born to serve God and save God’s creation. This man Jesus had to be born special and possess the power of God, and he did. He glorified God per scripture.
Unfortunately, this meaning was lost because of a few deliberate alterations by those trinitary-biased translators. For example, they changed the neuter form of the Greek to English word ‘it’ into ‘he’ to conform to their new made-up meaning of ‘word’ that ‘word’ meant the person of Jesus. Once this was done and sold, John’s meaning was overridden and mostly lost. This forced and made Jesus as the creator instead of God Almighty. This made the creation of everything by a created being.
This made the true meaning of verse 14a at least, lost. That God’s mind, character and extensive power was placed into a human being (as his image) to execute the crucial portion of the plan of our salvation. This propagated initial error in verses 1-3 at least, made the creature (Jesus, the born man) the creator in verse 14. And when you do this, the context of John’s words becomes nonsense as well.
As I said GodsGrace, these devious translators corrupted John Chapter 1 by altering the meaning of ‘logos.’ 95% of the meaning of ‘logos’ today, in print is shrouded in mystery, snobbery and confusing text/talk and articles that NEVER say directly why ‘logos’ was changed to suit the trinity model. They just start their writings - premises and axioms, implicitly or explicitly that it is an historical fact that ‘logos’ is Jesus without any question or dispute. It’s a shame Luther never killed this dangerous theory imported from the Catholics. It is meant to be the so-called mystery theory that all must believe in…based on blind faith.
I for one will see Jesus and be totally in his spirit in the next life. I will be as a child and an adopted son of God because of my spirit bonded in Jesus, and not directly in God. There is a reason why we are and can ONLY BE ‘in Christ’ and not ‘in God.’ I guess folks might even have a hard time with that one. They are not the same thing….completely off topic now….
Salvation/eternal security is the OP and I agree with RT on this one….and ironically it is based and because of my non-Trinitarian view and beliefs.
Bless you,
APAK