AGAIN, I didn’t reference the Protoevangelium of James as MY belief of Mary’s Perpetual Virginity.
Bread of Life used the Protoevangelium of James to prove what?
He has admitted it's not his belief that Joseph had children with another wife as the Protoevangelium makes this claim.
So why even bring up the Protevangelium of James document if you dont believe its factual historical evidence?
I brought up the Protoevangelium as HISTORICAL evidence.
Bread of Life uses "historical evidence " as his evidence.
This "evidence" he himself admits is not his position.
Yet he uses it anyway to prove Mary never had children.
Folks, I've asked Bread of Life multiple times to tell me if he believes Joseph had another wife before Mary the mother of Jesus, just as the Protoevangelium of James claims.
He has refused to give a straight answer.
Using something written in the past to try and prove your position is scriptural while denying you agree with the written document your using is inconsistent!!!
So heres my question to Bread of Life:
If you dont accept the Protoevangelium's account of Joseph having a wife with children before marrying Mary,
On what basis are you treating its claim about Mary's perpetual virginity as reliable historical evidence?
For everyone else who is interested in this discussion/debate.
It's good to know that scholars who recognize the Protoevangelium of James do not treat its narrative as straightforward historical reporting.
One Cambridge source describes its author as using old and new testament stories to construct a narrative about Mary and specifically characterizes the work as containing
fictitious/legendary elements.
Bread of Life chose to use this document as his evidence for Mary being childless.
Why would someone use something they dont have faith in as their evidence?
Very inconsistent argument.
Very unconvincing argument.