Father, Son, Holy Ghost

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fivesense

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its not so much a matter of 'interpretation' but its more a matter of 'translation'
hey,

do you mean the meaning of the tetragrammaton is 'will being was' ?

Yes, that is from Gen 2:4, YHWH's first occurence. It presents the God of future, present and past. The Greek counterpart is this:
Rev. 1:4, ho on the being, ho en the was, ho erchomenos the coming one

fivesense
 

mtalamai

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i read the previous interpretation of John:1:1

but I believve in the King James Version which says

In the beginning was the Word and the Word was with God and the word was God

I am convinced that Jesus is the Word, and that being said, "Jesus is God"

There are many scriptures that talk about praying in the "name of Jesus, but Im sorry but I don't have my bible next to me.

but I sure you know of them...and therefore I say that if Jesus is not God, than why do we pray his name rather that to the father, (separately)
rather than the fatiher being another name for Jesus?
 

Paul

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It does not say, in the Original Autographs, In the beginning, it says, In beginning.
It does not say, in the Original Autographs, the word was with God, it says,the logos was towards God.
It does not say, in the Original Autographs, the word was God, it say God was the logos.
Jesus is the Logos incarnated, the firstborn of all creation, the express visible image of the invisible God.
Prior to His kenosis, His emptying of Himself of His Glory, He was in the form of God and was known as YHWH, Jehovah, being equal to God, and distinct.
By Him and through Him all things that exist were created by Him.
The Bible never says He is the One true God, theos.

Jesus prayed that His disciples would be one as He and the Father are one, would that make His disciples God? Would that make them "Christs"? or would that be descriptive of the perfect unity of thought and heart and mind that is logically the context?

There is only One Who was begotten of God by the power of the Most High, the man Christ Jesus, the only mediator between God and men. The rest of mankind were begotten of Adam from his seed.

Although we would like to ascribe the glory of the Father to the Son, the Scriptures do not allow it. They are definite and precise in describing the relationship between God and His Son Jesus Christ. They are not the same being.

Jesus has a God, He has a Father. God has no father, and no god.

There can be no disputing these truths without entering into false reasoning based human unbelief.

fivesense


So, fs, is Jesus God?
 

Selene

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this is what confuses me greatly. You say he claimed to be 'the son' but the Jews say he was claiming to be God...and Jesus said he was the 'Son'

So who is correct. How could the jews have been correct in saying Jesus claimed to be God, when he clearly stated that he was 'the Son'?

There is a big difference between a son and a father. A son is not the father....a son is the prodigy of a father. So how could it be said that Jesus was claiming to be the Father?

does my question make sense?

Hi Pegg,

According to the prophet Isaiah, the name of the Son is "Mighty God" and "the Everlasting Father." The Jews were aware that this is the name of the Messiah. The Son is the "Everlasting Father." That is His name. According to the Great Rabbi Ibn Ezra: "There are some interpreters who say that ‘wonderful, counselor, mighty God, everlasting Father’ are the names of God, and that only ‘prince of peace’ is the name of the child. But according to my view, the right interpretation is that they are all the names of the child." (Walter Riggans, Yeshua Ben David [Wowborough, East Sussex; MARC, 1995], p. 370)Jesus was referring Himself to be the Messiah, this particular "Son of God" whom Isaiah prophesized. According to Scripture, it says: The Jews asnwered him, "We are not stoning you for doing a good work but for blasphemy: you are only a man and you claim to be God." (John 10:33-34). The Jews want to stone Him because Jesus was claiming to be God, and Jesus did not deny those accusations. Even St.. Paul says that Jesus was equal with God.

Now i just have one last line of reasoning about this. Tell me, if Jesus is God then it is only right that Jesus is also our judge. He must be the judge of all the earth because as you've stated, he is the ONLY God.

Yet, he himself says at John 12:44-50
44 However, Jesus cried out and said: “He that puts faith in me puts faith, not in me [only], but in him [also] that sent me; 45 and he that beholds me beholds [also] him that sent me. 46 I have come as a light into the world, in order that everyone putting faith in me may not remain in the darkness. 47 But if anyone hears my sayings and does not keep them, I do not judge him; for I came, not to judge the world, but to save the world. 48 He that disregards me and does not receive my sayings has one to judge him. The word that I have spoken is what will judge him in the last day; 49 because I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak. 50 Also, I know that his commandment means everlasting life. Therefore the things I speak, just as the Father has told me [them], so I speak [them].”

Who is the one Jesus is speaking of as our judge if it is not himself?

All three persons are different from each other, but all three are also the same. In this verse that you quoted, it appears as though Jesus will not judge at all. However, He will judge us because He is also God. According to St. Paul:

Romans 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.

Scripture does not contradict each other. When God came incarnated as a man in the person of Jesus Christ, He did not come to judge us. He came to save us. The purpose of His First Coming was to save us, not to judge us. However, on Christ's Second Coming, He will judge us. As Christ said in your quote above: 48 He that disregards me and does not receive my sayings has one to judge him. The word that I have spoken is what will judge him in the last day. The Last Day is Christ's Second Coming. On the last day, Christ is saying that there will be one who will judge us. That one is God and Christ is God as St. Paul shows us in Romans 14:10. St. Paul reveals through the Holy Spirit that we will stand before the judgement seat of Christ.

My siser, even as a Catholic it is not easy to explain the concept of the Holy Trinity because it is something that is also beyond our understanding. We know that both God and Christ have the same titles. The Son and the Father have the same titles because they are one and the same. They are different, but also the same.....and that is what makes it difficult to explain. This is why we always called the Holy Trinity "a mystery."

God is called the Alpha and the Omega in Revelations 1:8; yet, Jesus Christ also called Himself the Alpha and the Omega in Revelations 22:12-16. If Jesus is not God, how can He (a mere human being) say that He is the Alpha and the Omega like God. No human being can claim to be the beginning and the end except Jesus Christ.
.
Revelations 1:8
I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, saith the Lord God, who is, and who was, and who is to come, the Almighty.

Revelations 22:12-16 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward [is] with me, to give every man according as his work shall be. I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the end, the first and the last. Blessed [are] they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. For without [are] dogs, and sorcerers, and whoremongers, and murderers, and idolaters, and whosoever loveth and maketh a lie. I Jesus have sent mine angel to testify unto you these things in the churches. I am the root and the offspring of David, [and] the bright and morning star.

In Christ,
Selene
 

brionne

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Yes, that is from Gen 2:4, YHWH's first occurence. It presents the God of future, present and past. The Greek counterpart is this:
Rev. 1:4, ho on the being, ho en the was, ho erchomenos the coming one

fivesense

I see what you're saying, however this isnt really the definition of YHWH....we could define God in many ways as a Father, King, Ruler, Universal Sovereign or as a God of Eternity for example

The tetragrammaton is actually a verb ha‧wah′ and hebrew scholars say it means 'become' which makes sense considering that God is the creator. The fact that God causes things to become really sums up who and what he is moreso then the many titles he is known by....especially 'God' which doesnt define him at all.
 

brionne

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Hi Pegg,

According to the prophet Isaiah, the name of the Son is "Mighty God" and "the Everlasting Father." The Jews were aware that this is the name of the Messiah. The Son is the "Everlasting Father." That is His name.

Hi Selene,

Isaiah doesnt say that these are the Messiah's 'names'
He says '...and he will be CALLED wonderful counselor, mighty god, eternal father...."
If you consider that he is also called the 'Messiah' and that title actually became a part of his name 'Jesus Christ' ... but Messiah is a title just as Lord is a title.

The fact is also that he is called the 'prince' of peace. YHWH is never called a prince in the hebrew scriptures.

The Jews want to stone Him because Jesus was claiming to be God, and Jesus did not deny those accusations. Even St.. Paul says that Jesus was equal with God.



All three persons are different from each other, but all three are also the same. In this verse that you quoted, it appears as though Jesus will not judge at all. However, He will judge us because He is also God. According to St. Paul:

Romans 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.


There are many translations who do not use the name 'christ' in this verse. The reason being that the original text doesnt use the name Christ....it uses Theo ie God.

[sup]NIV 10[/sup]You, then, why do you judge your brother? Or why do you look down on your brother? For we will all stand before God's judgment seat.

NASB [sup]10[/sup]But you, why do you judge your brother? Or you again, why do you [sup](A)[/sup]regard your brother with contempt? For [sup](B)[/sup]we will all stand before the judgment seat of God.

ESV [sup]10[/sup]Why do you pass judgment on your brother? Or you, why do you despise your brother? For[sup](A)[/sup] we will all stand before[sup](B)[/sup] the judgment seat of God;

Darby [sup]10[/sup]But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? or again, thou, why dost thou make little of thy brother? for we shall all be placed before the judgment-seat of God.

ASV [sup]10[/sup] But thou, why dost thou judge thy brother? or thou again, why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment-seat of God.


So if we go by Pauls writings, this verse in your bible has been translated incorrectly in this instance.





Scripture does not contradict each other. When God came incarnated as a man in the person of Jesus

My siser, even as a Catholic it is not easy to explain the concept of the Holy Trinity because it is something that is beyond our understanding. We know that both God and Christ have the same titles. The Son and the Father have the same title because they are much more than one. They are the same. God is called the Alpha and the Omega in Revelations 1:8; yet, Jesus Christ also called Himself the Alpha and the Omega in Revelations 22:12-16.

If Jesus is not God, how can He (a mere human being) say that He is the Alpha and the Omega like God. No human being can claim to be the beginning and the end except Jesus Christ.
In Christ,
Selene


I can understand why the trinity is so difficult to explain or understand. But the fact is that due to the removal of the name of Jehovah from the bible, both God and Lord or GOD and LORD or Jesus and God become difficult to identify or separate.

The name Jesus is a very common name, many people are called by this name,It was a common name in the Jesus day and it is still common in the middle east today. However no human, no angel, no other being ever to have existed has been called by the name Jehovah because that is the creators personal name and he has never allowed it to be used by anyone.....not even his Son Jesus. If Jesus was really Jehovah, then why would he neglect to use his own name which identifies him? It doesn't make any sense for him to do that.
But Jesus is not only a man. He existed with God Jehovah in the heavens, he was the 'firstborn of all creation', he was a powerful spirit who worked alongside God at the founding of the world....he is not merely a human by our standards. Jehovah transferred his life into the womb of Mary so that his Son could be born as a human and live as a human and guide those who follow him back to their Creator Jehovah. That was jesus purpose in coming to earth and until people acknowledge that Jesus and Jehovah are two separate beings, they will never get back to their creator and they are missing the entire purpose of what the Messiah is trying to accomplish.


What the churchs need to do is put the name of the Almighty God Jehovah back in all the places where it is originally found in both the NT and Hebrew scriptures, then there will be no more confusion.
 

fivesense

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So, fs, is Jesus God?

Do you desire instruction from the word of God, and scriptural references to base it upon, or, are you seeking a format for repudiation and coflict? I am most willing to oblige you Paul, should your heart be in the right place and your desire to know truth more important than faction.
fivesense

I see what you're saying, however this isnt really the definition of YHWH....we could define God in many ways as a Father, King, Ruler, Universal Sovereign or as a God of Eternity for example

The tetragrammaton is actually a verb ha‧wah′ and hebrew scholars say it means 'become' which makes sense considering that God is the creator. The fact that God causes things to become really sums up who and what he is moreso then the many titles he is known by....especially 'God' which doesnt define him at all.


I would submit that what you are saying is there are titles that God has applied to Himself, and not being a Hebrew "scholar", I am only able to break it down according to actual usage. YHWH, Jehovah, is the Creator for certain.
fivesense
 

Selene

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Hi Selene,

Isaiah doesnt say that these are the Messiah's 'names'
He says '...and he will be CALLED wonderful counselor, mighty god, eternal father...."
If you consider that he is also called the 'Messiah' and that title actually became a part of his name 'Jesus Christ' ... but Messiah is a title just as Lord is a title.

The fact is also that he is called the 'prince' of peace. YHWH is never called a prince in the hebrew scriptures.

Hello Pegg,

Yes, that is true that God the Father is not called a prince. However, both God the Father and Christ the Son is called a "king."

There are many translations who do not use the name 'christ' in this verse. The reason being that the original text doesnt use the name Christ....it uses Theo ie God.

[sup]NIV 10[/sup]You, then, why do you judge your brother? Or why do you look down on your brother? For we will all stand before God's judgment seat.

NASB [sup]10[/sup]But you, why do you judge your brother? Or you again, why do you [sup](A)[/sup]regard your brother with contempt? For [sup](B)[/sup]we will all stand before the judgment seat of God.

ESV [sup]10[/sup]Why do you pass judgment on your brother? Or you, why do you despise your brother? For[sup](A)[/sup] we will all stand before[sup](B)[/sup] the judgment seat of God;

Darby [sup]10[/sup]But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? or again, thou, why dost thou make little of thy brother? for we shall all be placed before the judgment-seat of God.

ASV [sup]10[/sup] But thou, why dost thou judge thy brother? or thou again, why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment-seat of God.


So if we go by Pauls writings, this verse in your bible has been translated incorrectly in this instance.

As I mentioned before, the BEST Protestant Bible to use would be the King James Version or the New King James Version because they are the most accurate bibles that reflect the Hebrew and Greek translation; therefore, that would be the best Bible for you to use. But so far, you have been using other Bibles other than that. In Romans 14:10, the Greek word used was "Christos" which is "Christ."

Romans 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ (Christos).

(Taken from the King James Version)


As a Catholic, I use the Douay-Rheims because that is the oldest English Catholic Bible. The Douay-Rheims was also directly translated from the Latin Vulgate, which was written in the fourth century. The Latin Vulgate was translated directly from Hebrew and Greek by St. Jerome in Jerusalem who knew how to speak Greek, Hebrew, Aramic, and Latin fluently. Although I was told by my Catechists to use the Jerusalem Bible, the best Bible for Catholics to use would be the Douay-Rheims because it is the most accurate bible that reflects the Hebrew and Greek translation. Below is Scripture taken from the Douay-Rheims: As you can see, the translation is very similar to the KJV.

Romans 14:10 But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? or thou, why dost thou despise thy brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.

(Taken from the Douay-Rheims Bible)


The only reason my Catechists told me to use the Jerusalem Bible is simply because of the many footnotes and references, and I can do a Scrotacio with it. Although the contexts and meanings are the same, the wording, however, in the Jerusalem Bible is not the same as the Douay-Rheims The reason being that the words were replaced to make it easier for intelligent reading.

I can understand why the trinity is so difficult to explain or understand. But the fact is that due to the removal of the name of Jehovah from the bible, both God and Lord or GOD and LORD or Jesus and God become difficult to identify or separate.

The name Jesus is a very common name, many people are called by this name,It was a common name in the Jesus day and it is still common in the middle east today. However no human, no angel, no other being ever to have existed has been called by the name Jehovah because that is the creators personal name and he has never allowed it to be used by anyone.....not even his Son Jesus. If Jesus was really Jehovah, then why would he neglect to use his own name which identifies him? It doesn't make any sense for him to do that.
But Jesus is not only a man. He existed with God Jehovah in the heavens, he was the 'firstborn of all creation', he was a powerful spirit who worked alongside God at the founding of the world....he is not merely a human by our standards. Jehovah transferred his life into the womb of Mary so that his Son could be born as a human and live as a human and guide those who follow him back to their Creator Jehovah. That was jesus purpose in coming to earth and until people acknowledge that Jesus and Jehovah are two separate beings, they will never get back to their creator and they are missing the entire purpose of what the Messiah is trying to accomplish.

Are humans supposed to make sense out of God? Is God supposed to conform Himself to our logic? Creatures that are finite is unable to understand something that is infinite in nature. Jesus is true man and true God. That means that He is 100% human and 100% God all the time. Yes, I know that defies human logic, but God can defy human logic. The power of God is not limited by human logic and standards. As St. John said, "The Word was WITH God" and "WAS God." The nature of Jesus as God is not something the human mind can understand simply because we know that it is not logical. God is not about logic. No human being can bring salvation to mankind. Only God is capable of doing that because salvation comes only from God. Only God is our Savior. But in the Bible, Jesus is also called "our Savior" because He is God. The purpose of Jesus coming to earth is to show God's love for mankind. "No greater love has no man than this that he lay down his life for his friends." :) God bless you, my sister. It was good listening to your views and I've learned quite a lot from you. :)

In Christ,
Selene





 

brionne

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Hello Pegg,

Yes, that is true that God the Father is not called a prince. However, both God the Father and Christ the Son is called a "king."

Hi Selene,

Yes of course Jesus can be called a king. Even earthly people are called 'kings' so the fact that Jesus is called a king in no way puts him on par with Jehovah. Even the kings of Isreal were said to sit on Jehovahs throne... God can put anyone he likes on the throne and in the past he put kings such as David and Saul and Solomon on his throne and all were called Kings for Gods people...but none of them were God.

As I mentioned before, the BEST Protestant Bible to use would be the King James Version or the New King James Version because they are the most accurate bibles that reflect the Hebrew and Greek translation; therefore, that would be the best Bible for you to use. But so far, you have been using other Bibles other than that. In Romans 14:10, the Greek word used was "Christos" which is "Christ."

Romans 14:10 But why dost thou judge thy brother? or why dost thou set at nought thy brother? for we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ (Christos).


I think you might have misunderstood me. In the original language manuscripts, this verse does not have the name of Christ in it. It simply has Theo.
So your translation and the KJV and a very few others have actually changed what the original language text states. They have put the name Christ in where it should read 'God'.

Here is the latin vulgates verse in bold and then in english:
"tu autem quid iudicas fratrem tuum aut tu quare spernis fratrem tuum omnes enim stabimus ante tribunal Dei"
"But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? Or thou, why dost thou despise thy brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.."
Notice how it ends in the latin word 'Dei' That word is God and Jerome translated it God in the very next verse:

Vs 11 "For it is written: As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me and every tongue shall confess to God."
"scriptum est enim vivo ego dicit Dominus quoniam mihi flectet omne genu et omnis lingua confitebitur Deo"

We can also see in Vs 9 that the name of Christ is there, and it is certainly not Dei
VS 9: 'For to this end Christ died..."
"in hoc enim Christus et mortuus..."


So what i'm saying is that your translation has deliberately changed the word from God to Christ even though it is written as God in the original language.
The only reason they might do that is because they are allowing their theology to color their translation. Why Jerome did that in this verse and then in the very next verse used the word God is irreprehensible. And this should hopefully show you why the protestants wanted new translations made. No translation is perfect unless it has been rendered 'literally' and from the original languages.

here is the link to the latin vulgate where I got these verses from



The only reason my Catechists told me to use the Jerusalem Bible is simply because of the many footnotes and references, and I can do a Scrotacio with it. Although the contexts and meanings are the same, the wording, however, in the Jerusalem Bible is not the same as the Douay-Rheims The reason being that the words were replaced to make it easier for intelligent reading.

I would encourage you to use many translations and compare them....and look at the original words. There are many reference works which give us the meanings of those words. Only by knowing what the original words mean can we trully begin to understand anything about the bible.

There are many bibles that have such references in them. I would be happy to send you a NWT reference bible if you like...they contain footnotes on the original words and the NWT is a literal translation from the original languages.

Are humans supposed to make sense out of God? Is God supposed to conform Himself to our logic? Creatures that are finite is unable to understand something that is infinite in nature. Jesus is true man and true God. That means that He is 100% human and 100% God all the time. Yes, I know that defies human logic, but God can defy human logic. The power of God is not limited by human logic and standards. As St. John said, "The Word was WITH God" and "WAS God." The nature of Jesus as God is not something the human mind can understand simply because we know that it is not logical. God is not about logic. No human being can bring salvation to mankind. Only God is capable of doing that because salvation comes only from God. Only God is our Savior. But in the Bible, Jesus is also called "our Savior" because He is God. The purpose of Jesus coming to earth is to show God's love for mankind. "No greater love has no man than this that he lay down his life for his friends." :) God bless you, my sister. It was good listening to your views and I've learned quite a lot from you. :)

In Christ,
Selene

God certainly wants us to understand him and he says "I am not far off from each one of you"
The problem with us humans is that we often think only in human terms and we fail to grasp things in spiritual terms....but its not impossible to understand the bible, not by a long shot.
;)
 

brionne

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I would submit that what you are saying is there are titles that God has applied to Himself, and not being a Hebrew "scholar", I am only able to break it down according to actual usage. YHWH, Jehovah, is the Creator for certain.
fivesense

all hebrew names are representative of the person they belong to.

the name Jacob means 'seizing the heel' because when born, Jacob was holding the foot of Esau.
the name Esau mean 'hairy' because Esau had a lot of hair on his body
Abraham means 'father of a crowd' because he was chosen to be the father of the nation. His original name was
Isaac means 'laughter' because when Sarah was told she was going to have a child she laughed in disbelief.
Adam means 'earth' because he was made from the earth

So it is with YWHY....his name identifies something peculiar about himself and in hebrew its 'become' because he can bring anything into existence and can become whatever is necessary to fulfill his purposes. Its signifies his ability to do anything.
 

Selene

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Here is the latin vulgates verse in bold and then in english:
[/color]"tu autem quid iudicas fratrem tuum aut tu quare spernis fratrem tuum omnes enim stabimus ante tribunal Dei"
"But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? Or thou, why dost thou despise thy brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.."
Notice how it ends in the latin word 'Dei' That word is God and Jerome translated it God in the very next verse:

Vs 11 "For it is written: As I live, saith the Lord, every knee shall bow to me and every tongue shall confess to God."
"scriptum est enim vivo ego dicit Dominus quoniam mihi flectet omne genu et omnis lingua confitebitur Deo"

We can also see in Vs 9 that the name of Christ is there, and it is certainly not Dei
VS 9: 'For to this end Christ died..."
"in hoc enim Christus et mortuus..."

Hello Pegg,

As you pointed out in Romans 5:10, the Latin word "tribunal Dei" was used for "seat of Christ" in the Douay-Rheims.. Below shows the Douay-Rheims in comparison to the Latin Vulgate.

1410But thou, why judgest thou thy brother? Or thou, why dost thou despise thy brother? For we shall all stand before the judgment seat of Christ.
tu autem quid iudicas fratrem tuum aut tu quare spernis fratrem tuum omnes enim stabimus ante tribunal Dei

Now, look at 2 Corinthians 5:10 below. St. Jerome used the Latin words "tribunal Christi" to refer to this same "seat of Christ" that was spoken in Romans 14:10. In the Douay-Rheims and KJV, both verses are translated into "seat of Christ." So regardless of whether you use Romans 14:10 (tribunal Dei) or 2 Corinthians 5:10 (tribunal Christi) in the Latin Vulgate, Scripture shows that we will be judged by Christ. Christ was speaking of Himself because He is also God.

510<A name=5_10>For we must all be manifested before the judgment seat of Christ, that every one may receive the proper things of the body, according as he hath done, whether it be good or evil.
omnes enim nos manifestari oportet ante tribunal Christi ut referat unusquisque propria corporis prout gessit sive bonum sive malum

I do have the NIV, because it's much easier to read. The Catholic Bibles have more references and footnotes than any Protestant Bible, so I use those references most of the time. I actually perfer the Douay-Rheims, but I also use the Jerusalem Bible but only to please my Catechists. :D God bless.


In Christ,
Selene
 

Selene

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By the way, the Latin words "Dei," "Deo," and "Deus" all mean God. I am not certain about the Latin language, but I think "Dei" is often used to refer to Christ such as "Agnus Dei" (Lamb of God), and Deo is used to refer to God the Father such as "Gloria in excelsis Deo" (Glory to God in the highest). I'm not certain, though. My priest can speak 5 differnt languages, and Latin is one of them. I should ask him what the difference is between the three.
 

fivesense

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all hebrew names are representative of the person they belong to.

the name Jacob means 'seizing the heel' because when born, Jacob was holding the foot of Esau.
the name Esau mean 'hairy' because Esau had a lot of hair on his body
Abraham means 'father of a crowd' because he was chosen to be the father of the nation. His original name was
Isaac means 'laughter' because when Sarah was told she was going to have a child she laughed in disbelief.
Adam means 'earth' because he was made from the earth

So it is with YWHY....his name identifies something peculiar about himself and in hebrew its 'become' because he can bring anything into existence and can become whatever is necessary to fulfill his purposes. Its signifies his ability to do anything.

Perchance you would consider that " I am that I am", and our YHWH discussion has a connection, as pertains to time and not ability?
 

brionne

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By the way, the Latin words "Dei," "Deo," and "Deus" all mean God. I am not certain about the Latin language, but I think "Dei" is often used to refer to Christ such as "Agnus Dei" (Lamb of God), and Deo is used to refer to God the Father such as "Gloria in excelsis Deo" (Glory to God in the highest). I'm not certain, though. My priest can speak 5 differnt languages, and Latin is one of them. I should ask him what the difference is between the three.

yes, thats a good idea.
 

brionne

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Perchance you would consider that " I am that I am", and our YHWH discussion has a connection, as pertains to time and not ability?

No, I dont think it pertains to time at all. In Exodus 3:13-14 is the first time we see the expression found in most translations as 'I AM' That expression is only found in the versions translated from Latin: e′go sum qui sum, “I am Who I am.”

However, translations made from the hebrew translations offer a different rendering.
’Eh‧yeh′ ’Asher′ ’Eh‧yeh′ “I WILL BE THAT I WILL BE” and Rotherham puts it as, “I Will Become whatsoever I please.”

The reason for the difference in the hebrew is because ’Eh‧yeh′ comes from the Hebrew verb ha‧yah′, which means 'to become or prove to be
So the reference here is not to God’s self-existence but to what he has in mind to become toward others. In the case of the Isrealites he was going to become to them a deliverer. So really the expression is linked with his name (hayah) in that he can 'become' anything to anyone and he can cause anything to 'become' what he purposes. Really, the tetragrammaton identifies Jehovah as the Purposer.
 

mtalamai

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What does the word Logos mean?

And why are there so many translations of the bible

isn't one bible good enough?
 

brionne

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What does the word Logos mean?

And why are there so many translations of the bible

isn't one bible good enough?

The general greek word for 'words spoken' is rhe′ma. But when a word comes from God such as one spoken through a prophet, in greek it is always lo'gos. There are only a few places where Lo′gos is a title given to Jesus Christ (Joh 1:1, 14; Re 19:13) in both his pre-human existence when he was with God in heaven, and while he was on earth.

The basic reason for many bible translations is that over the years languages change.Considering the bible has been getting translated for many hundreds of years, its been imperative for it to be re-translated into the modern speech. If you were to compare older Bible translations with newer ones, you would note changes in the language. While they almost always give the same thought, you will notice that the translations printed in more recent years are generally easier to understand.
 

Paul

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The general greek word for 'words spoken' is rhe′ma. But when a word comes from God such as one spoken through a prophet, in greek it is always lo'gos. There are only a few places where Lo′gos is a title given to Jesus Christ (Joh 1:1, 14; Re 19:13) in both his pre-human existence when he was with God in heaven, and while he was on earth.

The basic reason for many bible translations is that over the years languages change.Considering the bible has been getting translated for many hundreds of years, its been imperative for it to be re-translated into the modern speech. If you were to compare older Bible translations with newer ones, you would note changes in the language. While they almost always give the same thought, you will notice that the translations printed in more recent years are generally easier to understand.


Why not just take some time and energy and learn Hebrew and NT Greek.
 

brionne

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Why not just take some time and energy and learn Hebrew and NT Greek.

yes, you could do that.

Or you could do some research and take advantage of the many reference works available from those who already know the languages.
 

Paul

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yes, you could do that.

Or you could do some research and take advantage of the many reference works available from those who already know the languages.


I have learned Hebrew and Greek, I also use a Companion Bible, the Strong's, several commentaries written by trusted Scholars, and several parsing guides. I prefer the Hebrew and Greek.