God’s name….

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Aunty Jane

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Human inventive interpretation of Scripture keeps surprising me. Let's take an example from Scripture. There was no law before the Flood.

Gen 6:5 The LORD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every intention of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
Gen 6:6 And the LORD regretted that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him to his heart.
Gen 6:7 So the LORD said, “I will blot out man whom I have created from the face of the land, man and animals and creeping things and birds of the heavens, for I am sorry that I have made them.”

So according your theory these people get a second chance after the resurrection of the evil.

Correct?
That is entirely up to the judge, not me. But we could ask….’did those people get a witness as to their bad behavior?’….an opportunity to see and correct their own wickedness?

Peter calls Noah “a preacher of righteousness”…
”For if God did not spare angels when they sinned, but cast them into hell and committed them to pits of darkness, reserved for judgment; and did not spare the ancient world, but preserved Noah, a preacher of righteousness, with seven others, when He brought a flood upon the world of the ungodly;. . . . .the Lord knows how to rescue the godly from temptation, and to keep the unrighteous under punishment for the day of judgment, and especially those who indulge the flesh in its corrupt desires and despise authority.…”
(2 Pet 2:4-5; 9-10 NASB)

Where are these ones cast? The word translated “hell” there is “tartaroō” which Strongs links to “Gehenna” or eternal death….so from Scripture it seems to indicate a permanent judgment…yet God is the judge of individuals. What affects the masses often affects the innocent as well.
e.g. The punishment delivered on the nation of Israel when they were sent as captives to Babylon included faithful servants like Daniel, Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego.

….and because the structure was huge, and Noah and his family were building it for perhaps many decades…this was a witness as well…..would the people of Noah’s day have an excuse not to believe Noah, who backed up his faith by his very obvious works?

So, Noah alone with his family, found favor with God, yet his salvation came through his acts of obedience.
God did not save Noah, but instructed him on how to save himself and his family.

Jesus likened the time of his return to “the days of Noah” (Matt 24:37-39)…..so how are we to understand that statement?
 
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Aunty Jane

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So, if you admit the name is YAHWEH, why do you insist on calling him Jehovah?
Admit? What is to admit? Has God had a change of name? or was it always Yahweh? (or as it was pronounced by all the writers of the Hebrew Scriptures)

Since there is no “J” in the Hebrew alphabet, that means that all “J”names in the Bible were translated from another name. Why was that? Try pronouncing those names in Hebrew….

And since those who accept that “Jesus” was something more than “the son of God” as he only claimed to be, his name is not correct either.…but no one seems to complain about that.

So we have something called translation….that gives us a more understandable way to say what would be difficult in our language and phrasing to say correctly with the exact Hebrew emphasis.

There is no doubt that the Tetragrammaton contained the Hebrew consonants YHWH…but the vowels were missing. Yet English translators adopted the name “Jehovah” as the English translation of the divine name as it was already widely accepted. Did God thunder from heaven and exterminate all those who dared to translate his name into their own language?

Do you understand that God’s name is translated into many languages….not just English…..none of which he objects to because he is the inventor of language and knows his name when his worshippers call on him in their own tongue.

If you still use the old KJV…look up Psalm 83:18 and see “Jehovah” not Yahweh.

Who replaced God’s name in his own Bible almost 7000 times without his permission? And who chose the 4 verses in the KJV where ”Jehovah” is found? It isn’t there in some of the most important verses….most notably in Exodus 3:15, Deut 5:11 and Isa 42:8.
Please explain…..
 

Berean

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So we have something called translation….that gives us a more understandable way to say what would be difficult in our language and phrasing to say correctly with the exact Hebrew emphasis.
So saying Yahweh is difficult? Or Yeshua?

I have a dozen or so translations that have Yahweh throughout, as many times as the NWT uses Jehovah.
 

Noitalever

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God’s Name….an important but overlooked topic….

How many people pray the Lord’s Prayer and say the words “hallowed be thy name” without a single thought as to what Jesus was saying?

What does “hallowed” mean?
It means to treat God’s name with respect and reverence, as the Bible writers did.

What is God’s name in the Bible, and did he intend for his worshippers to use it? Why is it missing from modern day translations?

Is there a difference between a name and a title?
Can we explore these questions?

Going back to Exodus and the liberation of God’s people from slavery in Egypt, Moses was sent by God to facilitate their release.
Exodus 3:13-15…from the Jewish Tanakh….

13 And Moses said to God, "Behold I come to the children of Israel, and I say to them, 'The God of your fathers has sent me to you,' and they say to me, 'What is His name?' what shall I say to them?"יגוַיֹּ֨אמֶר משֶׁ֜ה אֶל־הָֽאֱלֹהִ֗ים הִנֵּ֨ה אָֽנֹכִ֣י בָא֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ וְאָֽמַרְתִּ֣י לָהֶ֔ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י אֲבֽוֹתֵיכֶ֖ם שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם וְאָֽמְרוּ־לִ֣י מַה־שְּׁמ֔וֹ מָ֥ה אֹמַ֖ר אֲלֵהֶֽם:
14 God said to Moses, "Ehyeh asher ehyeh (I will be what I will be)," and He said, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'Ehyeh (I will be) has sent me to you.'"ידוַיֹּ֤אמֶר אֱלֹהִים֙ אֶל־משֶׁ֔ה אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה אֲשֶׁ֣ר אֶֽהְיֶ֑ה וַיֹּ֗אמֶר כֹּ֤ה תֹאמַר֙ לִבְנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵ֔ל אֶֽהְיֶ֖ה שְׁלָחַ֥נִי אֲלֵיכֶֽם:
15 And God said further to Moses, "So shall you say to the children of Israel, 'The Lord God of your forefathers, the God of Abraham, the God of Isaac, and the God of Jacob, has sent me to you.' This is My name forever, and this is how I should be mentioned in every generation.”טווַיֹּ֩אמֶר֩ ע֨וֹד אֱלֹהִ֜ים אֶל־משֶׁ֗ה כֹּ֣ה תֹאמַר֘ אֶל־בְּנֵ֣י יִשְׂרָאֵל֒ יְהֹוָ֞ה אֱלֹהֵ֣י אֲבֹֽתֵיכֶ֗ם אֱלֹהֵ֨י אַבְרָהָ֜ם אֱלֹהֵ֥י יִצְחָ֛ק וֵֽאלֹהֵ֥י יַֽעֲקֹ֖ב שְׁלָחַ֣נִי אֲלֵיכֶ֑ם זֶה־שְּׁמִ֣י לְעֹלָ֔ם וְזֶ֥ה זִכְרִ֖י לְדֹ֥ר דֹּֽר:

So God revealed his name, and its meaning to Moses and instructed him to tell the people that their God, (יְהֹוָ֞ה Yahweh) would liberate them from slavery.

Some will be saying right away that this is not correct…the meaning of God’s name is “I Am”….but the Jewish Tanakh translates the Tetragrammaton as “I Will Be What I Will Be”, which is not a statement of his existence, (as the Israelites already knew that their God existed) but it was a statement of his intentions in connection with them….he would “BE” whatever he needed to be, in order to accomplish his will and purpose for them….he had to deal with an obstinate Pharaoh and he needed to force him by various means, to release them. Yahweh had a role for them to play….and that was to produce the promised Messiah, through the lineage of Abraham, Isaac and Jacob, in the tribe of Judah. Everything about him was outlined in prophesy.

Yahweh became everything he needed to be in order to accomplish his will….and in the process, he demonstrated, in ways his people had never seen, the reality of his power.

How did the Israelites come to lose God’s name, and how did its meaning get to be twisted?

God sent his last prophet to his wayward people some 300 years before the Messiah arrived in 29CE. That would mean that God had virtually given up on correcting his people because they were serial covenant breakers and he let them go their own way until he sent his son….”a prophet like Moses”, who was not sent to correct them (as they were incorrigible) but to divide off from them a “remnant” who would accept Jesus as “the one” promised in their Scripture. This was prophesied. (Rom 9:27)

Long before Jesus arrived on the scene, the Jews had stopped saying God’s name in their speech, but they had kept it in their Scripture with the four Hebrew consonants “YHWH”. They addressed him audibly as “Adonai” which is a title….meaning ”Lord”. This title was common in Bible times as a mark of respect, with slaves often addressing their masters as “lord”. Sarah addressed Abraham by this title, so it is not another name for “God”. (1 Peter 3:6)

After some time, the pronunciation of the divine name was lost and when Jesus came, he too was addressed as “Lord”.
Why did Jesus call the Pharisees ‘children of the devil’? (John 8:44) Because satan had used them in his scheme to have God’s name eliminated from human speech….not only that, but he had manipulated these religious leaders to twist the Scriptures and to teach the people human traditions instead of scriptural truth. Like their “father the devil” they were liars. (Matt 15:7-9)

So now we have a situation where their Messiah has arrived but in a religious climate that was hostile to any change. The Pharisees had the people performing a sham religion, full of legality and short on truth and mercy….making Jesus’ job very difficult. And yet to whom was Jesus sent?

It was not to those proud intractable religious leaders, but to “the lost sheep of the house of Israel” (Matt 15:24)…..the ones who were”lost” because of the shameful neglect of their shepherds….so what did Jesus do that was reflected in the words of the Lord’s Prayer? He made the “hallowed” name of his Father known to his disciples.

In prayer Jesus said at John 17:25-26…
”O righteous Father, even though the world does not know you, I know you, and these know that you have sent me. I made known to them your name, and I will continue to make it known, that the love with which you have loved me may be in them, and I in them.” (ESV)
So Jesus rectified that problem right away, by making his Father’s name known to his followers…..under the divine name there would be love and unity.

Fast forward to later centuries and what do we find? God’s name is not only missing from human speech again, but it is also absent from his own word….very few English Bible translations contain the divine name at all, so satan has once again accomplished his goal…..only better now that it has been subtracted from scripture altogether.

What human author would tolerate their name being removed from their own work, and substituted with the title “Author”? Their name makes the work theirs….to claim credit for. The name of the author is as important as the name of the book they wrote. The author’s reputation is indicated by his name. People will seek out his writings.

The divine name was used extensively in the OT Hebrew Scriptures (almost 7000 times) but in modern Bibles you can only see where it used to be, by the use of capital letters for the title “LORD”. And in the NT Greek Scriptures even where the Hebrew verses quoted by Jesus and the apostles used the divine name, it is again substituted by the title “Kyrios” again meaning “Lord”.

How did this happen….twice? And why is the divine name still hidden from people who read their Bibles? If Jesus taught us to “hallow” or to “sanctify” God’s name, how do to sanctify a name you never use?

Whose agenda are the Bible translators supporting?

Even the “KJV only” crowd can see the divine name in their translation, but only 4 times out of 7000….the most notable is in Psalm 83:18….but who said that this was OK? Who chose those 4 verses?

Going back to Moses in Exodus 3, we see God’s command that his name was to be maintained in every generation, and yet the Jews disobediently chose to stop saying it.

When Jesus came, he restored the divine name but after his death and the passing away of his apostles, the divine name again disappeared as Christianity was taken over by the “weeds” of Jesus’ parable….in a satanically inspired counterfeit “Christianity”.

If you understand the importance of God’s name, then every effort should be made to restore it to its rightful place…..but I hear people say that “we do not know how to to pronounce it”……but that argument falls flat when we say the name “Jesus”, which is the English translation of the name of God’s son, that most people accept without question, yet the English translation of the Father’s name, “Jehovah” is rejected? They even balk at the transliteration “YAHWEH” (how it may have been pronounced in Hebrew) Make sense of that if you can….but God knows his name in any language.

The importance of God’s name was stressed by Jesus himself, so “hallowed be thy name” is as important today, as it was back then. Who can argue with that?
Philippines 2:9,10,11
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the Earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

My question to you, is the name of Jesus, the name above all names and is the name of God, seeing how according to this verse in the Bible, the name of Jesus is above all names?
 

quietthinker

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Philippines 2:9,10,11
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the Earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

My question to you, is the name of Jesus, the name above all names and is the name of God, seeing how according to this verse in the Bible, the name of Jesus is above all names?
'Hallowed be your Name' = May your Character be admired.
It was for the purpose of revealing God's name (his character) that Jesus sojourned among us. It was so that we as people do not need to live in fear or coercion.
'If I be lifted up I will draw all men to myself' Jesus said. Many will be offended at God's kindness, others wont be able to contain themselves for admiration.
 

Noitalever

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'Hallowed be your Name' = May your Character be admired.
It was for the purpose of revealing God's name (his character) that Jesus sojourned among us. It was so that we as people do not need to live in fear or coercion.
'If I be lifted up I will draw all men to myself' Jesus said. Many will be offended at God's kindness, others wont be able to contain themselves for admiration.
I did not ask for an opinion or an interpretation, I asked for an answer to my simple question. I do not see the answer to the question I asked in all this that you replied to me. Please go back and reread what I said, and answer the question that was put forth to another member. I don't see the reason or even the time spent giving an opinion or an interpretation that is as meaningless concerning the question asked, as clouds without no water during a dry and dusty famine.
 
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PS95

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Philippines 2:9,10,11
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the Earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

My question to you, is the name of Jesus, the name above all names and is the name of God, seeing how according to this verse in the Bible, the name of Jesus is above all names?

To a JW- the name of Jesus is not enough - They insist that we need another name.
Even with the addition of Acts 4:12-

11“He is the STONE WHICH WAS REJECTED by you, THE BUILDERS, but WHICH BECAME THE CHIEF CORNER stone. 12And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved.”

They do not accept what that simply says. Why? It disagrees with what they have been taught. To a JW it is all a conspiracy of deliberate name removal. It is simply not true.

The tetragrammaton (4 letters no vowels) in the OT- is YHWH-
JWs use the word, Jehovah- which is an error. It came from a Catholic monk in the 15th century who misunderstood the vowel pointing system. He mistakenly put the vowels from Adonai ( Hebrew for Lord) into the tetragrammaton and then, after many transliterations it ended up as - Jehovah. The JW literature does admit that no one knows the proper pronunciation anymore, and that it is lost- and, that scholars lean toward Yahweh, but they are not certain.

So why do JWs insist on using Jehovah? Good question. Their answer in literature is because it is the best known. So it's a "tradition of man" which JWs normally condemn.

JWs will argue that Jesus is not correct and while that has partial truth - it is NOT the same thing at all.
IF we had translated Yeshua directly into English we would have gotten Joshua. But the NT scriptures came to us originally in Greek, so there was a process of translating it just as there was with the scriptures. The same is true with James- actually Jacob in English.
Recall the sign "King of the Jews" over the Lord's head at Calvary was written in Hebrew, Greek & Latin?
Yeshua - Iesous- Iesus- Jesus

1) The Hebrew YHW’shua was abbreviated (remove HW) in Aramaic: Y’shua
2) The Hebrew/Aramaic Names were transliterated into Greek: Iesous,
3) The Greek was transliterated into Latin: Iesus
4) The Latin was transliterated into the English: Jesus

So there you have it in a nutshell. It is a matter of simple faith imo- Is Jesus enough or not? Is this all about a name game or trusting in Jesus? Do you trust that Jesus' shed blood was the payment for your sins? JWs do not.
They teach that your physical death is what pays for your sins. There is no forgiveness of your sins in Christ. He merely died so you don't remain asleep in the grave ( resurrection) after you've died to pay for your own sins.
They cherry pick Ro 6:7 which is 1/7 of one sentence and attribute that to physical death when Paul was speaking about being born again. The word, freed or acquitted or justified or made righteous from our sins is what is given to us when we die with Christ, and then we walk in new life. Half of Ro 6:23 is also abused. Context matters. I hope that helps.
 

Noitalever

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To a JW- the name of Jesus is not enough - They insist that we need another name.
Even with the addition of Acts 4:12-

11“He is the STONE WHICH WAS REJECTED by you, THE BUILDERS, but WHICH BECAME THE CHIEF CORNER stone. 12And there is salvation in no one else; for there is no other name under heaven that has been given among men by which we must be saved.”

They do not accept what that simply says. Why? It disagrees with what they have been taught. To a JW it is all a conspiracy of deliberate name removal. It is simply not true.

The tetragrammaton (4 letters no vowels) in the OT- is YHWH-
JWs use the word, Jehovah- which is an error. It came from a Catholic monk in the 15th century who misunderstood the vowel pointing system. He mistakenly put the vowels from Adonai ( Hebrew for Lord) into the tetragrammaton and then, after many transliterations it ended up as - Jehovah. The JW literature does admit that no one knows the proper pronunciation anymore, and that it is lost- and, that scholars lean toward Yahweh, but they are not certain.

So why do JWs insist on using Jehovah? Good question. Their answer in literature is because it is the best known. So it's a "tradition of man" which JWs normally condemn.

JWs will argue that Jesus is not correct and while that has partial truth - it is NOT the same thing at all.
IF we had translated Yeshua directly into English we would have gotten Joshua. But the NT scriptures came to us originally in Greek, so there was a process of translating it just as there was with the scriptures. The same is true with James- actually Jacob in English.
Recall the sign "King of the Jews" over the Lord's head at Calvary was written in Hebrew, Greek & Latin?
Yeshua - Iesous- Iesus- Jesus

1) The Hebrew YHW’shua was abbreviated (remove HW) in Aramaic: Y’shua
2) The Hebrew/Aramaic Names were transliterated into Greek: Iesous,
3) The Greek was transliterated into Latin: Iesus
4) The Latin was transliterated into the English: Jesus

So there you have it in a nutshell. It is a matter of simple faith imo- Is Jesus enough or not? Is this all about a name game or trusting in Jesus? Do you trust that Jesus' shed blood was the payment for your sins? JWs do not.
They teach that your physical death is what pays for your sins. There is no forgiveness of your sins in Christ. He merely died so you don't remain asleep in the grave ( resurrection) after you've died to pay for your own sins.
They cherry pick Ro 6:7 which is 1/7 of one sentence and attribute that to physical death when Paul was speaking about being born again. The word, freed or acquitted or justified or made righteous from our sins is what is given to us when we die with Christ, and then we walk in new life. Half of Ro 6:23 is also abused. Context matters. I hope that helps.
I see I'm going to have to take a better approach to get a straight simple answer so here we go:

Is the name of Jesus, the name above all names the name of God?

A. Yes

B. No
 

PS95

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I see I'm going to have to take a better approach to get a straight simple answer so here we go:

Is the name of Jesus, the name above all names the name of God?

A. Yes

B. No
Well that wasn't a very nice way to reply. I figured since you were new you would appreciate all of that helpful insight. Oh well. Welcome to the forum. You should have no trouble fitting in here. hlo
I am not a JW but I was raised as one- and became a Christian in my 30's. If that is good enough for you I can answer as to what they teach..

A JW would say, NO.
I will go further and tell you WHY- if you care
They would say the Father is Jehovah and only he is God. They would not easily offer this however,
The Son is a creature- the first created angel. The angel (Michael)'s "life force" went down to Mary's ovum , so Michael went out of existence. When Jesus was crucified that "life force" went back to heaven, so that Jehovah could recreate Michael. Jesus was a perfect human man who is dead forever. ( that is all documented teaching)
So, why do we still use Jesus' name instead of calling on Michael? Good question. Ask them.

Good nite.
 

quietthinker

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I did not ask for an opinion or an interpretation, I asked for an answer to my simple question. I do not see the answer to the question I asked in all this that you replied to me. Please go back and reread what I said, and answer the question that was put forth to another member. I don't see the reason or even the time spent giving an opinion or an interpretation that is as meaningless concerning the question asked, as clouds without no water during a dry and dusty famine.
Understanding the language (what is actually being communicated) is the first cab off the rank.....it solves the problem of a thousand unnecessary words including questions.
 

Aunty Jane

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So saying Yahweh is difficult? Or Yeshua?

I have a dozen or so translations that have Yahweh throughout, as many times as the NWT uses Jehovah.
So…..what has that got to do with us…? We accept either name….as Jehovah does. You think he doesn’t know we are talking to him?
There are no “J” names in Hebrew…..would you like us to change all the other Bible’s to suit your views?
 

Aunty Jane

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Philippines 2:9,10,11
Wherefore God also hath highly exalted him, and given him a name which is above every name: that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of things in heaven, and things in earth, and things under the Earth; and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.

My question to you, is the name of Jesus, the name above all names and is the name of God, seeing how according to this verse in the Bible, the name of Jesus is above all names?
Thank you for the question….not withstanding the carry on from one particular poster who is hell bent on getting the first word in just in case you might not want to wait for my answer…

Since your question was directed to me, I would like to answer for myself…..if that’s OK?

The Scripture in Phill 2:5-11 has been discussed at length on these threads, but here is an issue with mistranslation giving a false view of what is stated there.

Psalm 83:18 (KJV) tells us that God’s name is “Jehovah” and that he is “the Most High over all the earth” IOW…there is no name higher than the Father’s name. How does God give himself a name higher than what he already has? That is completely illogical.

Jesus’ position in relation to the Father is that of a son, and always has been. He is also called “God’s holy servant” (Acts 2:27) Can God become his own servant?

As Paul wrote…in 1 Cor 11:3…
”But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ.” (NASB)

The son is in subjection to his Father.

This is also highlighted in 1 Cor 15:27-28….(RS)

“‘God has put all things in subjection under his [Jesus’] feet.’ But when it says, ‘All things are put in subjection under him,’ it is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be everything to every one.”

The son subjects himself to the Father when he has completed his role as King of God’s Kingdom…God is the one who gave him authority over all things, (Matt 28:18) so once his mission is complete, he hands that authority back to its rightful owner.

The Hebrew word Shad·daiʹ and the Greek word Pan·to·kraʹtor are both translated “Almighty.” Both original-language words are repeatedly applied to Jehovah, the Father. (Ex 6:3 Rev 19:6) Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son or the holy spirit.

So to answer your question…..Jesus is the name of our wonderful savior, but all that he did in rescuing the human race from sin and death was “to the glory of God the Father”….not to himself.

I hope that answers your question….
 

quietthinker

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Thank you for the question….not withstanding the carry on from one particular poster who is hell bent on getting the first word in just in case you might not want to wait for my answer…

Since your question was directed to me, I would like to answer for myself…..if that’s OK?

The Scripture in Phill 2:5-11 has been discussed at length on these threads, but here is an issue with mistranslation giving a false view of what is stated there.

Psalm 83:18 (KJV) tells us that God’s name is “Jehovah” and that he is “the Most High over all the earth” IOW…there is no name higher than the Father’s name. How does God give himself a name higher than what he already has? That is completely illogical.

Jesus’ position in relation to the Father is that of a son, and always has been. He is also called “God’s holy servant” (Acts 2:27) Can God become his own servant?

As Paul wrote…in 1 Cor 11:3…
”But I want you to understand that Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of Christ.” (NASB)

The son is in subjection to his Father.

This is also highlighted in 1 Cor 15:27-28….(RS)

“‘God has put all things in subjection under his [Jesus’] feet.’ But when it says, ‘All things are put in subjection under him,’ it is plain that he is excepted who put all things under him. When all things are subjected to him, then the Son himself will also be subjected to him who put all things under him, that God may be everything to every one.”

The son subjects himself to the Father when he has completed his role as King of God’s Kingdom…God is the one who gave him authority over all things, (Matt 28:18) so once his mission is complete, he hands that authority back to its rightful owner.

The Hebrew word Shad·daiʹ and the Greek word Pan·to·kraʹtor are both translated “Almighty.” Both original-language words are repeatedly applied to Jehovah, the Father. (Ex 6:3 Rev 19:6) Neither expression is ever applied to either the Son or the holy spirit.

So to answer your question…..Jesus is the name of our wonderful savior, but all that he did in rescuing the human race from sin and death was “to the glory of God the Father”….not to himself.

I hope that answers your question….
'carry on', 'hell bent'...hmmmmm, revealing!
 

Berean

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So…..what has that got to do with us…? We accept either name….as Jehovah does. You think he doesn’t know we are talking to him?
There are no “J” names in Hebrew…..would you like us to change all the other Bible’s to suit your views?
Ah, so if others just refer to Him as "God" or "Heavenly Father", you think He doesn't know they're talking to Him?
 
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Runningman

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Yes, she is. JWs believe that a person's sins are done away with by way of their physical deaths. That is how they interpret Romans 6:7 even though that verse is not even talking about physical death.
Where did you find that is something JWs believe?

By the way, why did you quote something I said and attribute it to PS95 instead?
I am not sure myself. That might have been a forum error, or I just referenced the wrong person.
No, they are not. They deny His deity and they deny that their sins are taken away by His blood and say that instead their sins are taken away by their physical deaths.
I can't find any JW references that say this.
And, they also teach that people will get a second chance after being resurrected to be saved. They believe all kinds of falsehood. I'm concerned about you for not being able to discern this.
That's a doctrinal difference.
No, it is not. What religion are you part of?
I'm a Christian, but I believe in Biblical Unitarianism if I were to give it a name.
 
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ProDeo

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According to my JW family- So does Adolf Hitler. Even though he lived after Christ came. He will have 1000 years to obey.

Let us pray in this hour that nothing can divide us, and that God will help us against the Devil! Almighty Lord, bless our fight!'
-- Adolph Hitler to the SA in 1930.

Double error, Hitler knew, but exploited God for his sick political purposes.
 
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