Help with John 1:12-13

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CadyandZoe

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Yeah this is pretty much exactly why I have come to the conclusion that I cannot be a Calvinist recently. Free will is a vital doctrine and people don't seem to realize just how vital it is.

Romans 11:32 For God hath concluded them all in unbelief, that he might have mercy upon all.
One more data point to consider.
I may be dating myself but let's ask whether or not Frodo freely chose to go to Mt. Doom and destroy the ring? Within the context of the novel, we can say yes, Frodo made a free will choice, even though we also know that J.R.R Tolkien wrote Frodo making a free will choice to go.
 
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friend of

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One more data point to consider.
I may be dating myself but let's ask whether or not Frodo freely chose to go to Mt. Doom and destroy the ring? Within the context of the novel, we can say yes, Frodo made a free will choice, even though we also know that J.R.R Tolkien wrote Frodo making a free will choice to go.
Interesting.......
 

Davy

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I feel like the more I've been reading scripture lately, the more I've been finding contradictions.

John 1:12

Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God—

Now, correct me if I'm wrong. To recieve something or someone implies that a decision is made to accept that person or thing, right? To accept or reject anything necessitates free will, does it not?

1 John 1:13

...children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God

This very next verse states the opposite of previous in that it denies a decision of receptation was made by a person and inserts God's Sovereignty. How does this work? Does He allow us to accept His terms or does He override and make the decision for us?

It even says we are not born of a husband's will, but God is supposed to be our husband and it is His will that we be saved, for if it is not, then whose will could it possibly be?

Can anyone smarter than me explain this?
What you have run into is the difference between one that is 'called' only, vs. one who is 'called' and 'chosen', like Christ's Apostles.

If you'll notice, Jesus went to His Apostles and told them to follow, and they dropped what they were doing and followed Him. Was there any decision on their part made by that? Not really, because that event is recorded so we would understand He had 'chosen' them, and they did not choose Him, even as Jesus had said (John 15:16).

Apostle Paul was the greatest example of a 'chosen' sent one, because Paul (as Saul) was a Pharisee at the time and hunting down Christians to bring them back to Jerusalem for trial. Jesus struck Saul down on the road to Damascus and made Saul's choice for him. Jesus chose him, Saul didn't choose Jesus. (see Acts 9).

More of this difference between the 'called' vs. the 'chosen' is given in John 17 where Jesus prayed to The Father. He revealed 2 groups of servants there. And He prayed that both groups would become 'one' in Him and in The Father, meaning His Church.
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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Appreciate the info, but if you look around you, how many Christians do you "see?"

Mat_7:14 Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it.

Mat_9:37 Then saith he unto his disciples, The harvest truly is plenteous, but the labourers are few;

Mat_20:16 So the last shall be first, and the first last: for many be called, but few chosen.
Mat_22:14 For many are called, but few are chosen.

Today, in our Modern world, we even have our own "spiritual lingo".....conditional, unconditional, penial, grace, a second grace, Arminian, Calvinism....and so Christian keeps on fighting against Christian

Matthew 25.
Hi,

The Christians I see are those of their own will chose to obey the gospel and become a Christian, they are not Christians because of a arbitrary, unconditional choice God made for them. 2 Thess 2:14 people are called by the gospel, but only a few answer that gospel call by obeying the gospel. (2 Thess 1:8)

Acts 13:46; Rom 1:16 the gospel first went to the Jews but most Jews chose of their own free will to reject that gospel call (1 Thess 2:14-16) and would not obey the gospel (Mt 23:37). There were millions (many), they were like sand in the sea but only a remnant (few) saved (Rom 9:27). The few saved were so for they were the ones who heard the gospel, believed and obeyed it by repenting and being baptized, (Acts 2:36-38) not by an arbitrary, unconditional choice God made for them.

Mt 23:37
"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not!"

Jesus metaphorically used the term Jerusalem in referring to the Jews. If those Jews had before the world began already been unconditionally lost by God, why would Jesus deaire the "would" be under His protective wing knowing they were already predetermined to be lost? On the other hand, if they were before the world began predetermined to be saved, then why, how could they reject Christ and be lost?

Mt 19
If the young rich ruler was a totally depraved person predetermined by God to be lost before the world began, how/why was he able and willingto obey the the law and seek eternal life if he were totally depraved and why would Jesus offer him eternal life (v17) if it were already predetermined he would be of the 'unregenerate' lost? Also, if he were predetermined to be lost before the world began, then why did Jesus "love him" and not "hate" him as Calvinists claim God "hates" the non-elect as Esau?
On the other hand, if it were predetermined before the world began by God he would be saved, then why/how could he have rejected salvation just offered him by Christ turn away from Christ and leave lost? Jesus 'loved him" would that not make him of the elect according to Calvinism?

Matt 7:13-14
Enter ye in at the strait gate: for wide is the gate, and broad is the way, that leadeth to destruction, and many there be which go in thereat:
Because strait is the gate, and narrow is the way, which leadeth unto life, and few there be that find it
.
Lk 13:23-24
Then said one unto him, Lord, are there few that be saved? And he said unto them,
Strive to enter in at the strait gate: for many, I say unto you, will seek to enter in, and shall not be able
.

Why command men to "enter" and "strive" to enter the strait gate if God has already prechoose for men which men will or will not enter the strait gate? The imperatives imply ability and responsibility is upon man to enter in the strait gate or not and not by a predetermination made for men by God. Jesus said there be few that "find" the strait, narrow gate. The words"seek", "find" and "strive" imply activities on the part of man in seeking for, striving for entrance to the strait gate, not a predetermined choice made by God for men. Again, if God already predetermined for men which will enter the strait gate, then no amount of seeking, striving by men could attain entrance, the striving and seeking to find is a vain waste of time. Many will seek but not find for many will seek according to false teachings/religions. And how can the many seek for the strait gate if they are totally depraved being "unregenerated" thereby unwilling and unable to seek? Obviously there is a multitude of problems with Calvinism's total depravity, unconditional election of individuals, limited atonement, etc.
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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One more data point to consider.
I may be dating myself but let's ask whether or not Frodo freely chose to go to Mt. Doom and destroy the ring? Within the context of the novel, we can say yes, Frodo made a free will choice, even though we also know that J.R.R Tolkien wrote Frodo making a free will choice to go.
But where is the free will if the author determines for Frodo what Frodo does?


Take Jonah's example.

First, if all has been preordained by God, why even bother to command Jonah to go to Nineveh when Jonah can only do what God has already predetermined for him to do? The commands given to men in the Bible show that man has both ability and responsiblity to choose to obey those commands or not, thereby man is rightly and justly held accountable for his own free choices.


Second, in Jonah 1:2-3; God commanded Jonah to go to Nineveh and preach to that wicked city, yet Jonah ran away from God. Was Jonah's DISOBEDIENCE in running away his free will choice or was the DISOBEDIENCE predetermined by God where Jonah could do not else but disobey God?

If the disobedience were Jonah's free will choice then God would be righteous and just in punishing Jonah for Jonah's free will choice. If the disobedience was predetermined by God, the we have God forcing Jonah to disobey God's command then God punishing Jonah for the disobedience God forced upon Jonah. What is righteous, just about that? Nothing for such is not God's nature.
 
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friend of

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Something to think about as we sort through a very difficult question concerning God's sovereignty and Human freedom.
I've thought about what you said and I've come to the conclusion that no, Frodo would not have free will in your example. All of Frodo's actions were predetermined in a higher dimension, let's call it, the "author dimension". Frodo can do nothing at all without the author (God) directing all of his actions. If this is the reality for us, then God is running a marionette universe and we can only expect children to be entertained by such things, and only for so long, until they grow up a bit. God interacts with our free will, He doesn't override it [all] of the time, for if He did, we are then rendered no more than inanimate objects. God wants to wed His church to Christ but how could He possibly wed Christ to a mannequin?
 

CadyandZoe

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But where is the free will if the author determines for Frodo what Frodo does?


Take Jonah's example.

First, if all has been preordained by God, why even bother to command Jonah to go to Nineveh when Jonah can only do what God has already predetermined for him to do? The commands given to men in the Bible show that man has both ability and responsiblity to choose to obey those commands or not, thereby man is rightly and justly held accountable for his own free choices.


Second, in Jonah 1:2-3; God commanded Jonah to go to Nineveh and preach to that wicked city, yet Jonah ran away from God. Was Jonah's DISOBEDIENCE in running away his free will choice or was the DISOBEDIENCE predetermined by God where Jonah could do not else but disobey God?

If the disobedience were Jonah's free will choice then God would be righteous and just in punishing Jonah for Jonah's free will choice. If the disobedience was predetermined by God, the we have God forcing Jonah to disobey God's command then God punishing Jonah for the disobedience God forced upon Jonah. What is righteous, just about that? Nothing for such is not God's nature.
We evaluate Frodo's "freedom" from within context of the story. Within the story, Frodo is making freewill choices to act bravely and with integrity. Inside the book, Frodo has the power of acting without the constraint of necessity or fate; he has the ability to act at his own discretion. Within the story he has independence and self-determination.

That is on the one hand. On the other hand, Frodo is not self-existing; he has no freedom to act contrary to Tolkien's pen. Frodo is subject to "authorial-determinism", whereby Tolkien determines Frodo's free will choices. Tolkien decides what course Frodo will follow as is necessary to tell the story he wants to tell.

Likewise Jonah's freewill choice to run from his responsibility must be evaluated within the context of the "story" God is telling. Jonah is subject to "divine-determinism", whereby God authors Jonah's decision to disobey his command. Jonah is not self-existing; he has no freedom to act contrary to God's "pen." God determines Jonah's free will choices. God decides what course Johan will follow as is necessary to tell the story he wants to tell.

In order to understand Preordination, one must also understand "transcendence." God exists on a higher ontological level than his creation, and as John says, nothing exists apart from him, nothing comes into existence apart from him and nothing happens apart from him. God is the author of all that exists.
 

CadyandZoe

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I've thought about what you said and I've come to the conclusion that no, Frodo would not have free will in your example. All of Frodo's actions were predetermined in a higher dimension, let's call it, the "author dimension". Frodo can do nothing at all without the author (God) directing all of his actions. If this is the reality for us, then God is running a marionette universe and we can only expect children to be entertained by such things, and only for so long, until they grow up a bit. God interacts with our free will, He doesn't override it [all] of the time, for if He did, we are then rendered no more than inanimate objects. God wants to wed His church to Christ but how could He possibly wed Christ to a mannequin?
I liked where you were headed but you accidently slipped away from the transcendental nature of the author. Frodo's freedom must be evaluated within the story Tolkien is telling. When Frodo remarks, "I will take it...I will take it...I will take the Ring to Mordor." he is making a free will choice, within the story, to take the ring to Mordor. Within the story, Frodo is making independent choices free from coercion.

That is on the one hand. On the other hand, Frodo's choices, as you observed depend on Tolkien's creative process. Outside the story, all of Frodo's words and actions are predetermined by the author Tolkien, "in a higher dimension." From the perspective of that higher dimension, Frodo's actions are based on "authorial-determinism". Frodo is not free of Tolkien. Frodo can't act independently of Tolkien. Frodo's free will is not free of Tolkien.

The same is true of all free will agents in our reality. All human beings deserve independence and self-determination, and to the degree that they have liberty, they are free to make independent choices according to what he or she actually wants.

But, with regard to the transcendent creator of the universe. the actions of all free agents are based on "divine-determinism" who author's free will choices according to the story God wants to tell. But we are not puppets on a string, because puppets and puppeteers are located on the same ontological level, where as creature and creator are on different levels of reality.
 

friend of

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Sorry Cady I just can't jive with that now. What you've just described is really not free will, it's pure determinism. I'm siding with Ernest ITT.
 

CadyandZoe

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Sorry Cady I just can't jive with that now. What you've just described is really not free will, it's pure determinism. I'm siding with Ernest ITT.
Okay, but think about this. When Parents pray for the salvation of their kids, what do they expect God to do for them? Think in terms of the question at hand.
 

friend of

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Okay, but think about this. When Parents pray for the salvation of their kids, what do they expect God to do for them? Think in terms of the question at hand.
I guess they would expect God to draw them to Himself.
 

friend of

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Here's a C.S. Lewis quote I found on FB that I think is good.

"God created things which had free will. That means creatures which can go wrong or right. Some people think they can imagine a creature which was free but had no possibility of going wrong, but I can't. If a thing is free to be good it's also free to be bad. And free will is what has made evil possible. Why, then, did God give them free will? Because free will, though it makes evil possible, is also the only thing that makes possible any love or goodness or joy worth having. A world of automata -of creatures that worked like machines- would hardly be worth creating. The happiness which God designs for His higher creatures is the happiness of being freely, voluntarily united to Him and to each other in an ecstasy of love and delight compared with which the most rapturous love between a man and a woman on this earth is mere milk and water. And for that they've got to be free.
Of course God knew what would happen if they used their freedom the wrong way: apparently, He thought it worth the risk. (...) If God thinks this state of war in the universe a price worth paying for free will -that is, for making a real world in which creatures can do real good or harm and something of real importance can happen, instead of a toy world which only moves when He pulls the strings- then we may take it it is worth paying."
 

Enoch111

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Can anyone smarter than me explain this?
Actually the explanation is quite simple. It is the ones who believe on the Lord Jesus Christ and RECEIVE Him as Lord and Savior who are born of God, born of the Spirit, born from above, or born again (regenerated by the supernatural power of the Holy Spirit). Thus the Gospel becomes "the seed" of the New Birth.
 

CadyandZoe

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Here's a C.S. Lewis quote I found on FB that I think is good.

"God created things which had free will. That means creatures which can go wrong or right. Some people think they can imagine a creature which was free but had no possibility of going wrong, but I can't. If a thing is free to be good it's also free to be bad. And free will is what has made evil possible. Why, then, did God give them free will? Because free will, though it makes evil possible, is also the only thing that makes possible any love or goodness or joy worth having. A world of automata -of creatures that worked like machines- would hardly be worth creating. The happiness which God designs for His higher creatures is the happiness of being freely, voluntarily united to Him and to each other in an ecstasy of love and delight compared with which the most rapturous love between a man and a woman on this earth is mere milk and water. And for that they've got to be free.
Of course God knew what would happen if they used their freedom the wrong way: apparently, He thought it worth the risk. (...) If God thinks this state of war in the universe a price worth paying for free will -that is, for making a real world in which creatures can do real good or harm and something of real importance can happen, instead of a toy world which only moves when He pulls the strings- then we may take it it is worth paying."
Lewis is speaking from within our story. And he makes good, logical sense out of the concept of free will. But I wonder what he would have said about Jesus Christ, who although he had freedom of the will, he never used his freedom to sin. In other words, evil is not the result of freedom.
 

Ernest T. Bass

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We evaluate Frodo's "freedom" from within context of the story. Within the story, Frodo is making freewill choices to act bravely and with integrity. Inside the book, Frodo has the power of acting without the constraint of necessity or fate; he has the ability to act at his own discretion. Within the story he has independence and self-determination.

That is on the one hand. On the other hand, Frodo is not self-existing; he has no freedom to act contrary to Tolkien's pen. Frodo is subject to "authorial-determinism", whereby Tolkien determines Frodo's free will choices. Tolkien decides what course Frodo will follow as is necessary to tell the story he wants to tell.

Likewise Jonah's freewill choice to run from his responsibility must be evaluated within the context of the "story" God is telling. Jonah is subject to "divine-determinism", whereby God authors Jonah's decision to disobey his command. Jonah is not self-existing; he has no freedom to act contrary to God's "pen." God determines Jonah's free will choices. God decides what course Johan will follow as is necessary to tell the story he wants to tell.

In order to understand Preordination, one must also understand "transcendence." God exists on a higher ontological level than his creation, and as John says, nothing exists apart from him, nothing comes into existence apart from him and nothing happens apart from him. God is the author of all that exists.
These actions do not describe God as loving, just and righteous as the Bible describes God, but rather it describes the action of someone evil and sadistic to cause innocent men to sin against their will just so God can then punish them. What kind of satisfaction can this type of sadistic behaviour bring to God? What purpose is being served by such sadistic actions, what lesson can man learn from this type of corrupt behaviour?

Matt 23:37-38
"O Jerusalem, Jerusalem, thou that killest the prophets, and stonest them which are sent unto thee, how often would I have gathered thy children together, even as a hen gathereth her chickens under her wings, and ye would not! Behold, your house is left unto you desolate."

If we look at the above verse under a Calvinistic lens, we find the following:

On one hand we see that it was God's desire that those Jews would be gathered together under Christ's protective wing. Yet God acting against His own will ordained that these Jews would not be gathered under Christ's protective wing. God preordinated the disobedience of these Jews causing them against their will to not be under Christ's wing and then God punishes these Jews for not being under Christ's wing even though it was God's desire that they would be under Christ's wing. And then God puts all the accountablility on the Jews for not being under Christ wing by saying "ye would not" when in reality it was God that "would not".

And people try and tell me Calvinism is "logical". It's insanty!!!

More insanity from a Calvinist author:

"In Spite of All of the Foregoing Statements, We Have to Come to the Point Where We Confess That We Do Not Understand How It Is That God Can Ordain That We Carry Out Evil Deeds and Yet Hold Us Accountable for Them and Not be Blamed Himself: We can affirm that all of these things are true, because Scripture teaches them. But Scripture does not tell us exactly how God brings this situation about or how it can be that God holds us accountable for what he ordains to come to pass. Here Scripture is silent, and we have to agree with Berkhof that ultimately “the problem of God’s relation to sin remains a mystery" (Systematic Theology, p.331.)

Wayne Grudem


More:

"While it is vitally true that God foreordains all things, it is also equally true that man is totally and completely responsible for his actions. Though God foreordained 9/11, it is also true that these wicked men acted freely, doing exactly what they wished to do. How can we reconcile the foreordination of God with man’s sinful actions? We cannot. This is what theologians call concurrence or what Henry Krabbendam calls the complementarity of truth. These doctrines are infinitely glorious and do not fit within finite minds."


Calvinists create a problem that is not found within the Bible. And then they have no solution for the sadistical behavior of God that Calvinism created, so they conveniently brush it off by saying "it remains a mystery" and "we cannot" reconcile the problem, a problem man created. This is not any different than man creating the idea of original sin.....which creates the man made problem of Christ being born with sin.....which creates man made solutions to 'fix' this problem when in reality the problem nor solution are even found in the Bible. The Bible does not provide solutions to these problems for the Bible does not create these problems.....no need to solve a problem that does not even exist.


The above website tries to give a solution to God causing some event to happen yet at the same time claims God is not responsible for what happens.... yet the Calvinists I cited earlier cannot find a solution, that "it's a mystery".
The above website (that claims to have the solution) says that "cause" has different meanings. He writes "But there is more than one sense of the word cause. We rightly distinguish between efficient and final causes (sometimes labeled proximate and ultimate causes)."
Then he gives examples:

"God is the final cause; not the efficient cause of evil.

To illustrate that someone or something can be the "final cause" of an evil act and yet not be held morally responsible for it, consider these examples:

My friend, without my consent, robs a bank to get money to help pay my medical bills. He is the efficient cause of the action. He is morally culpable. I am the final cause, the one for whose sake the thing was done, yet I am not morally culpable.

My enemy, in a fit of rage over something I have done or said, goes on a wanton spree of vandalism. He is arrested, tried, and found guilty, because he is the efficient cause. Yet he continues to blame me for the episode. Indeed, I am the final cause—for he did this because of me. But I am not morally culpable.

A car thief caught in a sting operation makes the futile plea that he is not guilty because he would never have stolen that car if the police had not left it unlocked with the keys in the ignition. Here the cops are absolutely the final cause, because they staged the opportunity for the crime in order to catch a ring of serial car thieves operating in the neighborhood. The thief himself is the efficient cause. He is also the only person in this scenario with evil intent.

Those are not perfect examples, because there is no exact parallel to a sovereign God, but those examples do clearly illustrate how someone can "cause" an evil action that he or she is not morally culpable for
."

Do I believe God brings things about to happen? Yes. Do I believe God causes these things to happen by violating man free will by ordaining men to do things whereby man has no choice at all? No.

In the first example, my friend robs a bank to get me money to pay my bills. Am I resposnsible for his own willful actions? No. Did I CAUSE (ordain) him to rob the bank against his will? If I did, then I DO HAVE culpability in the robbery.

Did God violate Jonah's free will by ordaing him to disobey? No. Therefore God was just and righteous in punishing Jonah in the whale.

Then we have in Jonah 3

And the word of the LORD came unto Jonah the second time, saying,
Arise, go unto Nineveh, that great city, and preach unto it the preaching that I bid thee.
So Jonah arose, and went unto Nineveh, according to the word of the LORD. Now Nineveh was an exceeding great city of three days' journey
.

In Jonah 3, Jonah has already received just, righteous punishment from God for his own choice to disobey God. Yet Jonah now in chapter 3 decides he will go to Nineveh as God told him. Did God "cause" Jonah to go to Nineveh against own will through preordination? Absolutley not. Jonah going this second time was a free will choice of Jonah for Jonah now knew the CONSEQUENCES of disobeying God. Could Jonah have freely chosen to diosbey God this second time? YES!!!! Why did he not disobey God a second time? For he knows there is judgment coming against those who disobey God and he did not want to face God's judgment again.
 
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Ernest T. Bass

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God had a twofold purpose with Pharoah, Rom 9:17 ".....that I might (1) shew my power in thee, and (2) that my name might be declared throughout all the earth."

Did God accomplish these two things with Pharaoh? YES. Did God accomplish them by violating Pharaoh's free will through ordination CAUSING Pharaoh to disobey against his own will? NO.

It was always in Pharaoh's power as to HOW God would accomplish these two things. Had Pharoah chose to obey God at the beginning and let the people go, then God would have shown His power over this great King and God's name would be maginified. Yet Pahroah chose of his own free will to disobey God therefore God used Pharoah's own choice of disobedience to accomplish these two things.

Therefore God was going to accomplish these two things regardless if Pharaoh chose to obey or not, So it was always in Pharaoh's own power as to how God would accomplish them and Pharoah of his own free will chose the hard way by disobeying God. Therefore God accomplished His will without having to violate Pharoah's free will through preordination.

Hence God accomplishes things by using His will, not by causation. God is not so weak that the only way He can accomplish His will is by violating man's free will through preordination. God has foreknowledge, so God already knows what free will choices men will make when men are put in various circumstances and God can use man's free will choices to accomplish His will.


"Some (Calvinists, for instance) have thought that the key to sovereignty is causation. This is wrong! The key to sovereignty is ultimate control. Through His absolute foreknowledge of every plan of man’s heart, and through His absolute ability (omnipotence) to either permit or prevent any particular plan man may have, God maintains complete control (sovereignty) over His creation. The power to prevent means that God ultimately has the final word in everything that happens. To deny this is to deny the sovereignty of God!"

God uses His permissive will, His decretive will and His preceptive will to control things. He can use His foreknowledge of man's own free will choices to accomplish His purposes, not by causing things to happen against man's will.
 

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Как ответить в тему?
Может я не правильно пишу?
Прошу помочь.
С уважением.
 

CadyandZoe

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These actions do not describe God as loving, just and righteous as the Bible describes God, but rather it describes the action of someone evil and sadistic to cause innocent men to sin against their will just so God can then punish them. What kind of satisfaction can this type of sadistic behaviour bring to God? What purpose is being served by such sadistic actions, what lesson can man learn from this type of corrupt behaviour?
I don't think I was saying that God causes innocent men to sin against their will. You seem to have misunderstood me. And your assessment that I am a Calvinist is also mistaken. Try not to think in dualistic terms e.g. Calvin vs. Arminius. Try to hear what I am saying and the points that I am making with my language. We are having a conversation together. Try to listen to the points being presented here in this thread. Don't assume anything.

When I was an apologist, arguing for the existence of God and proposing a rational basis for belief in the Gospel, we spoke often of first principles. One such principle is the immutable and universal law of cause and effect. And one argument for the existence of God, known as the "Cosmological argument for the existence of God" is an argument from universal causation. In this universe, nothing can come to be without a cause, which leads to the conclusion that there must be a first cause or in Aristotle's words, an "unmoved mover."

What I hear in your argument back to me is something like this. In order for God to foreordinate evil, he must be the primary and ultimate cause of evil. Since free will exists and since a man is not truly free unless it was possible for him to act contrary to how he did, in fact, act, then force and coercion follow necessarily from the foreordination of evil. That is, in order for God to foreordain evil, he must necessarily violate a man's freedom.

This argument is based on three assumptions: (1) the universal law of causation, (2) an undefined concept of free will, and (3) an ignorance of God's transcendence. (I don't mean that you are ignorant. I mean that your assumptions do not take transcendence into account.) While all of us Christians affirm the immanence of God, we must not ignore or forget the transcendence of God. While we understand that God is entirely within his creation, it isn't true that he is subject to the laws and principles of his creation. He is not, for instance, subject to the universal law of causation.

While it is true that within this universe, nothing happens without an antecedent cause, it is not true that God must "cause" things to happen within the universe. A transcendent creator is not limited to the law of causation. According to the principles of creativity, a creator is able to bring things into existence ex-nihio, i.e. from nothing. The Genesis account, for instance, pictures a creator, who speaks things into existence. Thought becomes reality at the command of the creator. Miracles stand as evidence against the idea that all things require an antecedent cause found within the universe. The acts of creation and miracles have an antecedent source, which exists outside of the universe. The one who said, "Let there be light" is the same who can say, "let there be wine in the containers rather than water."

Foreordination, therefore, must take transcendence into account. Foreordination only makes sense within the context of a transcendental God and his creative activity. In order to understand this relationship, I find the author/novel to be a helpful aid. The author is to God as the novel is to the universe. We would not, for instance, accuse Tolkien of being an evil person for creating the character Sauron. Tolkien didn't force or coerce Sauron. Rather, the account of Sauron acting in malice as a free agent makes sense within the story. Within the story, Sauron's actions are explicable in terms of his self-determination, even as his story is also explicable in terms of Tolkien's self-expression. Both are true at the same time because Tolkien's existence is transcendental with respect to his novel, the story and the characters. Sauron's free will actions within the story are not independent from Tolkien's narrative purpose.

We don't condemn Tolkien for the deaths of all the orcs or free peoples who died in his novel. And neither do we condemn Tolkien for the creation of a story that contains an evil person such as Sauron. We evaluate the story based on the ideas it presents. Does good survive evil? Is evil punished? Is good rewarded? Do Tolkien's characters speak truthfully, fairly and accurately about the human condition? These criteria help us evaluate the story Tolkien told.

Likewise, if existence is explicable in terms of God's narrative purpose, then our evaluation of history is focused on the purpose and execution of the story God is creating. Our evaluation of history is centered on the narrative purpose and execution of history and whether history is a good story or not. Are evil and sadistic actions condemned and punished? Is good promoted and evil discouraged? The creation of our existence is nothing less than a form of God's self-expression. He speaks into existence people and actions that highlight his character.
 

-Phil

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John 1:12

Yet to all who did receive him, to those who believed in his name, he gave the right to become children of God—

Now, correct me if I'm wrong. To recieve something or someone implies that a decision is made to accept that person or thing, right? To accept or reject anything necessitates free will, does it not?
“The right”… like free will, isn’t a person or thing, it’s a thought.

1 John 1:13

...children born not of natural descent, nor of human decision or a husband’s will, but born of God

This very next verse states the opposite of previous in that it denies a decision of receptation was made by a person and inserts God's Sovereignty. How does this work? Does He allow us to accept His terms or does He override and make the decision for us?

It even says we are not born of a husband's will, but God is supposed to be our husband and it is His will that we be saved, for if it is not, then whose will could it possibly be?
To be “born of God” is never to have been born at all.