How does God lead?

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Dave L

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Tell me an example of one of your answered prayers. How do you know you are praying according to God's will?

Edit: I'm waiting...

I see a few snakes along the bike trail every so often, but nothing like that. An interesting tid bit. Being the squirrel aficionado that I am, a hawk (or small eagle) had a squirrel in its talons flying off with it. I was on my bike and began praying something like "Lord do not let this be, make this stop". I had faith and knew the Lord heard me, and a bit later the hawk (eagle) dropped the squirrel into a thicket where it had a soft landing. I didn't pray for the bird to find a replacement meal though...

The hawk actually went out of its way to safely drop the squirrel........
 
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1stCenturyLady

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"Thy will be done" is a great yardstick to praying right and looking to see Scriptural answers. :)

But then you never learn what God's will is. Just praying "Thy will be done" is a cop out and lazy. When Jesus prayed that prayer, He already knew what God's will was and was merely agreeing with having to pay the ultimate price for us. He partnered with God.

The easy way to pray God's perfect will is to pray in the Spirit - tongues - but you may never know what that was unless He also gives you the interpretation. However, the greater gifts of hearing God's voice allow you to hear what God's will is BEFORE you pray. That is what the Spirit taught me to do ever since I was filled with the Spirit 41 years ago. Then 100% of your prayers are answered. There is no such thing as "No" with God if you pray His will. That only happens when you pray amiss for your own lusts. But if you pray His will, He always answers in the affirmative. 1 John 5:14-15
 

farouk

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But then you never learn what God's will is. Just praying "Thy will be done" is a cop out and lazy. When Jesus prayed that prayer, He already knew what God's will was and was merely agreeing with having to pay the ultimate price for us. He partnered with God.

The easy way to pray God's perfect will is to pray in the Spirit - tongues - but you may never know what that was unless He also gives you the interpretation. However, the greater gifts of hearing God's voice allow you to hear what God's will is BEFORE you pray. That is what the Spirit taught me to do ever since I was filled with the Spirit 41 years ago. Then 100% of your prayers are answered. There is no such thing as "No" with God if you pray His will. That only happens when you pray amiss for your own lusts. But if you pray His will, He answers in the affirmative. 1 John 5:14-15
I meant it as a general principle.

(BTW, I don't see 'tongues' as relevant; I do see cessation of them in 1 Corinthians 13).
 

1stCenturyLady

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I meant it as a general principle.

(BTW, I don't see 'tongues' as relevant; I do see cessation of them in 1 Corinthians 13).

Read to the end of chapter 13 and you will see that tongues will not cease until we see Him face to face. It is covenant law that nothing inside a covenant ceases to exist until the end of the covenant, itself. We are still in the New Covenant. In the Old Covenant, circumcision and sacrifices and holy days and meat laws were intact until Christ died on the cross. That was the end of the Old Covenant. Likewise, the end of the New Covenant will have to do with Jesus also, not the end of the apostles, or what they wrote. What they wrote is like a how to manual. Also, about the gifts. Remember, the day of Pentecost was the "early rain." There is also a "latter rain." That is what is happening now, signaling the return of Jesus.
 

farouk

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Read to the end of chapter 13 and you will see that tongues will not cease until we see Him face to face. It is covenant law that nothing inside a covenant ceases to exist until the end of the covenant, itself. We are still in the New Covenant. In the Old Covenant, circumcision and sacrifices and holy days and meat laws were intact until Christ died on the cross. That was the end of the Old Covenant. Likewise, the end of the New Covenant will have to do with Jesus also, not the end of the apostles, or what they wrote. What they wrote is like a how to manual. Also, about the gifts. Remember, the day of Pentecost was the "early rain." There is also a "latter rain." That is what is happening now, signally the return of Jesus.
I would see the chapter referring to the completion of Scripture, and therefore the need for sign gifts passed.
 

1stCenturyLady

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I would see the chapter referring to the completion of Scripture, and therefore the need for sign gifts passed.

You are not taking into consideration the COVENANT. Nothing inside a covenant ends, until the covenant, itself, ends. Sign gifts have not passed. They are a "sign" one is a "believer." They follow those who "believe." You are mistakingly believing they refer to the apostles.

"16 He who believes and is baptized will be saved; but he who does not believe will be condemned. 17 And these signs will follow those who believe: In My name they will cast out demons; they will speak with new tongues; 18 they will take up serpents; and if they drink anything deadly, it will by no means hurt them; they will lay hands on the sick, and they will recover.”

The scary thing is, I went to church for 30 years before I actually repented of ALL sin. Up until then, I never had an answer to prayer - another sign. I had never been saved. It is a sign because true believers are able to hear God's voice - "My sheep hear My voice." That is not some mystically calling to become a believer - it is an ability from then on.

If the gifts ended, then so did baptism.
 
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GodsGrace

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I get your point...it's just wrong. You are limiting God to what is written. And this you do even after Jesus explained "My words are spirit."

So...your definition of what "the word of God" is, is in error - it is not limited to the "written" word.

But let me give you something to contemplate: Do the scriptures say, "Always was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God?" Or do they say, "In the beginning...?"

We both know that the scriptures say "In the beginning." Why then do you say "Everything is revealed in the N.T." when the N.T. is only written and not "spirit" - which is the End?"
Scott, been too busy, I can't remember if I replied to this!

So if it's not limited to the written word...let's do this:

Let's agree that Mary was taken bodily into heaven...
First because she wouldn't be the first one.
Second because this was revealed to a church in 1854 and it makes sense because she was born without sin since she carried God's Son and her body should not see destruction.

See...3 unbiblical "truths" in just one doctrine!

I DO believe that we are to test everything against scripture or anyone could make any doctrine they deem correct.
 
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1stCenturyLady

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Scott, been too busy, I can't remember if I replied to this!

So if it's not limited to the written word...let's do this:

Let's agree that Mary was taken bodily into heaven...
First because she wouldn't be the first one.
Second because this was revealed to a church in 1854 and it makes sense because she was born without sin since she carried God's Son and her body should not see destruction.

See...3 unbiblical "truths" in just one doctrine!

I DO believe that we are to test everything against scripture or anyone could make any doctrine they seem correct.

Where is it written that Mary was born without sin? How was this revealed in 1854?

The reason Jesus couldn't sin is the same reason a born again Christian cannot sin - the seed of the Father. Jesus was conceived with the seed of the Father, so he could never sin. We are baptized with the seed of the Father so we cannot sin. 1 John 3:9. It had nothing to do with Mary.
 

GodsGrace

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Where is it written that Mary was born without sin? How was this revealed in 1854?

The reason Jesus couldn't sin is the same reason a born again Christian cannot sin - the seed of the Father. Jesus was conceived with the seed of the Father, so he could never sin. We are baptized with the seed of the Father so we cannot sin. 1 John 3:9. It had nothing to do with Mary.
LOL
You're making my point that we MUST depend on the written word!
 
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farouk

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Where is it written that Mary was born without sin? How was this revealed in 1854?

The reason Jesus couldn't sin is the same reason a born again Christian cannot sin - the seed of the Father. Jesus was conceived with the seed of the Father, so he could never sin. We are baptized with the seed of the Father so we cannot sin. 1 John 3:9. It had nothing to do with Mary.
Habitual sin indeed raises questions, but John's First Epistle (1 John 2.1) makes it clear that the Advocate we have with the Father is if we sin, if we are overtaken in a fault.
 
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1stCenturyLady

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LOL
You're making my point that we MUST depend on the written word!

Oh, I'm sorry, it appeared by your wording that you believed this as fact (that Mary was born without sin as the RCC and Orthodox teach). BTW, what happened in 1854?
 

1stCenturyLady

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Habitual sin indeed raises questions, but John's First Epistle makes it clear that the Advocate we have with the Father is if we sin, if we are overtaken in a fault.

Do you notice that 1 John 2:1 makes it clear we are perfectly able (with the Spirit) to live without sin? Most people want to focus on excuses for sin and overlook that part saying it is impossible. They lie, not giving credit to the power of the Spirit. That is why we must walk in the Spirit. That is a command, not a suggestion. Furthermore, there is no mention of needing to repent in order for Jesus, our Advocate, to cleanse our faults. This brings us back to 1 John 1:7 to one who IS walking in the Spirit. Seeing as the Spirit will never lead us into lawlessness (major sins of the Ten Commandments), then you are right as our "faults" will be caused from immature fruit of the Spirit. It must be clear that our Advocate does not automatically cleanse us from lawlessness.

There is a difference between lawlessness (willful sin) and immature fruit (trespasses) committed unwittingly. For instance, gossip. If you repeat gossip you've heard, and that gossip wasn't actually the truth, but a lie, then you unwittingly bore false witness against someone. (That is why, when possible, I go to the horses mouth before believing gossip. Besides, they need to know and correct what is being spoken about them.) It is best to stop gossip in its tracks and be bold enough to correct the spreader.
 

GodsGrace

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Oh, I'm sorry, it appeared by your wording that you believed this as fact (that Mary was born without sin as the RCC and Orthodox teach). BTW, what happened in 1854?
In 1854, the Pope at the time, declared by Papal bull, which means it became official Catholic dogma that was to be believed, that Mary was conceived immaculately.
The Immaculate Conception.
Why?
Because if she was to be the mother of Jesus, and He had no sin,,,then SHE should have no sin either. So, at some point in her conception, she became immaculate, which means that original sin was removed from her. It's even argued as to exactly WHEN this happened...I'd say right away while the cells were still splitting...

In 1950 the Pope of that time declared, again as dogma, that Mary was taken to heaven bodily, this is called the assumption.
Why?
Because being the mother of Jesus, it was determined that her body could not be subject to decay.

The other two dogmas of Mary are:
Perpetual Virginity
Mother of God (they now say Jesus)
 

ScottA

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Scott, been too busy, I can't remember if I replied to this!

So if it's not limited to the written word...let's do this:

Let's agree that Mary was taken bodily into heaven...
First because she wouldn't be the first one.
Second because this was revealed to a church in 1854 and it makes sense because she was born without sin since she carried God's Son and her body should not see destruction.

See...3 unbiblical "truths" in just one doctrine!

I DO believe that we are to test everything against scripture or anyone could make any doctrine they deem correct.
That doesn't work - not because it is not in the scriptures...but because you have contradicted the scriptures.
 

1stCenturyLady

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In 1854, the Pope at the time, declared by Papal bull, which means it became official Catholic dogma that was to be believed, that Mary was conceived immaculately.
The Immaculate Conception.
Why?
Because if she was to be the mother of Jesus, and He had no sin,,,then SHE should have no sin either. So, at some point in her conception, she became immaculate, which means that original sin was removed from her. It's even argued as to exactly WHEN this happened...I'd say right away while the cells were still splitting...

In 1950 the Pope of that time declared, again as dogma, that Mary was taken to heaven bodily, this is called the assumption.
Why?
Because being the mother of Jesus, it was determined that her body could not be subject to decay.

The other two dogmas of Mary are:
Perpetual Virginity
Mother of God (they now say Jesus)

Just to be clear, because these assumptions are not in scripture you, yourself, do not believe them. Right?
 
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GodsGrace

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Just to be clear, because these assumptions are not in scripture you, yourself, do not believe them. Right?
Right. This is the point @ScottA is not understanding or I'm not explaining it right.
There is no new revelation after the N.T. and Jesus.

IF there were, then we'd have to believe some of these dogmas since they're based on reason. Who knows what other stuff we'd have to believe.

I agree with sola scriptura.
 
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1stCenturyLady

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Right. This is the point @ScottA is not understanding or I'm not explaining it right.
There is no new revelation after the N.T. and Jesus.

IF there were, then we'd have to believe some of these dogmas since they're based on reason. Who knows what other stuff we'd have to believe.

I agree with sola scriptura.

There is no new general revelation regarding the world, but there is "personal" revelation. Also with regards to Israel, there may be revelation as to what prophecies specifically are being fulfilled by events being played out, such as in 1948.
 
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