ewq1938 said:
That's incorrect on all points. They are called dead because their bodies are dead. Souls don't require a body as I prove below.
The souls had no body in those verses.
And? It has symbolism and literalism.
A vision doesn't mean not really happening. It means it was SEEN...VISION.
Mat 17:3 And, behold, there appeared unto them Moses and Elias talking with him.
They literally appeared.
Man is a body, with a soul and spirit inside. Gen 2:7 is using a different definition of soul, which simply means a living person but that is not the definition of the soul within us.
The context is dead bodies.
It is found in various scriptures which I have already presented. Even Christ was alive after he physically died when he visited Hades and preached the gospel:
1Pe 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
1Pe 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
1Pe 3:20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
1Pe 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
1Pe 3:22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.
1Pe 4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;
1Pe 4:2 That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
1Pe 4:3 For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries:
1Pe 4:4 Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:
1Pe 4:5 Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
1Pe 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
1 Peter 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
Now, one must understand that the word Hell is used for more than one place. The Hell he went to is known as Hades, the place of the spirits of the physically dead and prison for fallen angels.
He went in order to preach the gospel similar to going into a hostile or bad area to preach the gospel!
The dead were given a chance to hear the Gospel and be judged as if they were alive and heard the Gospel. It was so those who received and accepted it could live according to God in the spirit ie: receive salvation.
John 13:1 Now before the feast of the passover, when Jesus knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.
This proves that Jesus did at least for short time go to his father after he died.
This also proves he was not dead and sleeping in the grave after physical death.
Act 2:25 For David speaketh concerning him, I foresaw the Lord always before my face, for he is on my right hand, that I should not be moved:
Act 2:26 Therefore did my heart rejoice, and my tongue was glad; moreover also my flesh shall rest in hope:
Act 2:27 Because thou wilt not leave my soul in hell, neither wilt thou suffer thine Holy One to see corruption.
Act 2:28 Thou hast made known to me the ways of life; thou shalt make me full of joy with thy countenance.
Act 2:29 Men and brethren, let me freely speak unto you of the patriarch David, that he is both dead and buried, and his sepulchre is with us unto this day.
Act 2:30 Therefore being a prophet, and knowing that God had sworn with an oath to him, that of the fruit of his loins, according to the flesh, he would raise up Christ to sit on his throne;
Act 2:31 He seeing this before spake of the resurrection of Christ, that his soul was not left in hell (hades), neither his flesh did see corruption.
Act 2:32 This Jesus hath God raised up, whereof we all are witnesses.
Proof Jesus' soul was in Hades.
Eph 4:5 One Lord, one faith, one baptism,
Eph 4:6 One God and Father of all, who is above all, and through all, and in you all.
Eph 4:7 But unto every one of us is given grace according to the measure of the gift of Christ.
Eph 4:8 Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
Eph 4:9 (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
Eph 4:10 He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)
Hades is said to exist "downward" implying it's somewhere in the Earth, in a spiritual dimension of course, 2Pe_2:4, Luk_10:15, Eze_31:16, Isa_14:15.
Ecc_12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
Naturally the spirit is alive when it returns to God.
HI eqw1938,
I don't think you're listening to me. I can address each of those passages above but I suspect you'll just disagree or post more. The point I am making is that the idea that man can somehow live after death is "NOT" taught in the Scriptures. You already believe that and bring it to the text. So, when you see certain passages of Scripture they seem to fit what you already believe. You are drawing your conclusions based on Inferences, not clear teaching from Scripture.
For instance on might say the Bible teaches that a man is justified by faith. Well, we can go to the Bible and see this clearly taught. In Romans 3 and 4 Paul teaches how a man is justified by faith and not the works of the Law. We don't find anything like this teaching that man can somehow live after death. Not a single passage of Scripture that you posted states that man can live after death. You've inferred that idea from those passages.
Your argument really is the fallacy of begging the question. You want to prove that man can live on after death and you post passages of Scripture in which you've assumed your premise, that man can live on after death. In the passage about the transfiguration you've assumed that man can live after death and presented that as evidence that man can live after death.
I'm going to address one of the passages you post above. If you'd like we can address all of them one at a time. ou said,
"
It is found in various scriptures which I have already presented. Even Christ was alive after he physically died when he visited Hades and preached the gospel:
1Pe 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
1Pe 3:18 For Christ also hath once suffered for sins, the just for the unjust, that he might bring us to God, being put to death in the flesh, but quickened by the Spirit:
1Pe 3:19 By which also he went and preached unto the spirits in prison;
1Pe 3:20 Which sometime were disobedient, when once the longsuffering of God waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was a preparing, wherein few, that is, eight souls were saved by water.
1Pe 3:21 The like figure whereunto even baptism doth also now save us (not the putting away of the filth of the flesh, but the answer of a good conscience toward God,) by the resurrection of Jesus Christ:
1Pe 3:22 Who is gone into heaven, and is on the right hand of God; angels and authorities and powers being made subject unto him.
1Pe 4:1 Forasmuch then as Christ hath suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves likewise with the same mind: for he that hath suffered in the flesh hath ceased from sin;
1Pe 4:2 That he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh to the lusts of men, but to the will of God.
1Pe 4:3 For the time past of our life may suffice us to have wrought the will of the Gentiles, when we walked in lasciviousness, lusts, excess of wine, revellings, banquetings, and abominable idolatries:
1Pe 4:4 Wherein they think it strange that ye run not with them to the same excess of riot, speaking evil of you:
1Pe 4:5 Who shall give account to him that is ready to judge the quick and the dead.
1Pe 4:6 For for this cause was the gospel preached also to them that are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit."
Firstly, you've conflated two passages. 1 Peter 3 is talking about spirits and chapter 4 is talking about people. Lets start with chapter 3
18 For Christ also suffered once for sins, the just for the unjust, that He might bring us to God,
being put to death in the flesh but
made alive by the Spirit,
19 by whom also He went and
preached to the spirits in prison,
20 who formerly were disobedient, when once the Divine longsuffering waited in the days of Noah, while the ark was being prepared, in which a few, that is, eight souls, were saved through water.
(1 Pet. 3:18-20 NKJ)
Firstly, let's look at the order. Christ suffered, was put to death, made alive, and preached to spirits. So, the English text shows that He preached after being made live, not while He was dead. The Greek grammar requires this interpretation and doesn't allow for the idea that He preached while dead.
The Greek words that translated "being put to death" and "made alive" are both past tense participles the first is perfect tense and the second aorist. The word translated "preached" is not the word typically used of preaching the gospel. It means to proclaim something. The word is an indicative verb. In Greek grammar a participle's time element is subject to the time of the indicative verb. In other words the Greek grammar requires that both "being put to death" and "made alive" occured before He preached or made the proclamation. Therefore the grammar requires that He was alive when He made the proclamation. Peter says that Christ made that proclamation to the spirit in prison who were disobedient in the time of Noah. I submit that what He proclaimed to them is what Peter tells us a few verses later.
22 who has gone into heaven and is at the right hand of God,
angels and authorities and powers having been made subject to Him. (1 Pet. 3:22 NKJ)
Regarding chapter 4. There is a perfectly logical understanding of this passage that doesn't require that the dead are somehow alive. Peter said,
NKJ 1 Peter 4:1 Therefore, since Christ suffered for us in the flesh, arm yourselves also with the same mind, for he who has suffered in the flesh has ceased from sin,
2 that he no longer should live the rest of his time in the flesh for the lusts of men, but for the will of God.
3 For we have spent enough of our past lifetime in doing the will of the Gentiles-- when we walked in lewdness, lusts, drunkenness, revelries, drinking parties, and abominable idolatries.
4 In regard to these, they think it strange that you do not run with them in the same flood of dissipation, speaking evil of you.
5 They will give an account to Him who is ready to judge the living and the dead.
6 For this reason the gospel was preached also to those who are dead, that they might be judged according to men in the flesh, but live according to God in the spirit.
7 But the end of all things is at hand; therefore be serious and watchful in your prayers.
(1 Pet. 4:1-7 NKJ)
I submit that in this context Peter is simply speaking of the gospel having been preached to those who had died. After all Paul said that the Gospel had been preached to Abraham and he was certainly dead when Peter wrote his letter. IN context peter is addressing the issue of God judging. He's telling them to live right because God will judge all, bot the living and the dead. Then he explains how God could judge those who had died. it is because they too had the Gospel.
As I said, I'd be happy to discuss this but it's got to be done orderly or there won't be any progress.