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That's how Jesus saw it.Brother, it's this constant focus on how to get saved and stay saved that gets me. Like it's all about saving my sorry butt. Me, me, me, me, me.
@doctrox The problem is that you are assuming what the text needs to prove.I stated that because the OP has lost the plot, behaving as if he is not cognizant of the above obvious fact. And without a return to the gist, he risks derailing the thread entirely.
LIkewise, a believer "who permanently rejects Christ" "has no biblical right to claim he is one of Christ's sheep."
So we need to move from that non sequitur to the meat.
Indeed @ "...through faith..." i.e. our end of the deal. Free will choice can never be abrogated.
Yep.
apostasia (Strong's G646) = a falling away, defection, apostasy
It is believers who become apostate.
An apostate is someone who formally abandons or renounces their religious faith. Instead of "apostate," the KJV uses terms like "falling away," "rebellion," or "departing from the faith." Example: Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away [G646] first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition (2 The. 2:3).
So attempting to conflate 1 John 2:19 with "apostasy" is another non sequitur.
Since the OP insists on restricting our responses to a "sealed" vs. "UNsealed" scenario...
The key to understanding re: the OP is to let scripture interpret scripture. Simply by reading all the appearances of the word seal (sphragizō), 26 times in 17 verses, the word defines itself.
The seal, the earnest, a promise, is integral with performance e.g. faithfulness.
Here's another look from a different angle:
Romans 15:25-29:
But now I go unto Jerusalem to minister unto the saints. For it hath pleased them of Macedonia and Achaia to make a certain contribution for the poor saints which are at Jerusalem. It hath pleased them verily; and their debtors they are. For if the Gentiles have been made partakers of their spiritual things, their duty is also to minister unto them in carnal things. When therefore I have performed this, and have sealed to them this fruit [the alms], I will come by you into Spain. And I am sure that, when I come unto you, I shall come in the fulness of the blessing of the gospel of Christ.
Paul was one that laid out himself to do good every way, like his Master, to the bodies as well as to the souls of people. Ministering to the saints is good work, and is not below the greatest apostles. This Paul had undertaken, and therefore he resolves to go through with it, before he fell upon other work: When I have sealed to them this fruit. He calls the alms fruit, for it is one of the fruits of righteousness; it sprang from a root of grace in the givers, and redounded to the benefit and comfort of the receivers. And his sealing it intimates his great care about it, that what was given might be kept entire, and not embezzled, but disposed of according to the design of the givers. Paul was very solicitous to approve himself faithful in the management of this matter: an excellent pattern for ministers to write after, that the ministry may in nothing be blamed. - Matthew Henry
But, in the context of the OP, that is not what it "means." Clearly, there is an ongoing agenda with the OP, a dishonest attempt to prove something that is false.
Yep. But, again, that is not at issue.
I agree. False professors do not prove that Christ loses His sheep. They prove the warnings of Scripture are true.False professors and those who sin with impunity are not in Christ.
I don't believe they are able to fall away because they are not in Christ in the first place.
I don't believe their falsity can be used to show the eternal seal of salvation in Christ is false.
I think they show God's word is true.
Those in Christ don't make a habit of sinning.
If they do,they are not his own. They do not know him and he does not know them
.
Great post,yes!I agree. False professors do not prove that Christ loses His sheep. They prove the warnings of Scripture are true.
That is exactly why 1 John 2:19 matters: “They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us.” Their departure did not prove that eternal life failed. It proved they were never truly of Christ.
And you are right that those in Christ do not make sin their settled way of life. John says, “Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him” ~1 John 3:9. That cannot mean sinless perfection, because the same apostle says, “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves” ~1 John 1:8. It means the born-again person cannot live in sin as his normal pattern without conviction, chastening, repentance, and the preserving work of God.
So the biblical line is not “a person can live like the devil and still have assurance.” That is false comfort. The biblical line is this: false professors fall away, but Christ keeps His own. Jesus said, “My sheep hear my voice, and I know them, and they follow me” ~John 10:27. Then He said, “I give unto them eternal life; and they shall never perish” ~John 10:28.
That is where the assurance rests. Not in empty profession. Not in sin with impunity. Not in man’s strength. It rests in Christ, who saves His sheep and keeps them.
“Whosoever is born of God doth not commit sin; for his seed remaineth in him” ~1 John 3:9. That cannot mean sinless perfection, because the same apostle says, “If we say that we have no sin, we deceive ourselves” ~1 John 1:8.
This is SO TRUE and CORRECT Gray Joy!Reborn. A new creation.
Reverts to the appetites of the old creation?
How silly.
Rather, I am pandering down to a conflicted OP.The problem is that you are assuming what the text needs to prove.
That's correct, but it remains a non sequitur i.e. it does not address apostasy.You said, “It is believers who become apostate.” But 1 John 2:19 directly addresses that kind of departure and says, “They went out from us, but they were not of us; for if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us.” That is not a non sequitur. That is Scripture interpreting departure. John does not say they were truly of Christ and then stopped being of Christ. He says their going out revealed they were “not of us.”
We're going for the definition of the word "seal," not trying to win an argument (think OP).Paul “sealing” the fruit of the collection in Romans 15 is not the same issue as God sealing believers with the Holy Spirit unto the day of redemption.
The issue is not at Christ's end (as you've described in length), but at the believer's end who retains free will...That is the issue. The sealing in Ephesians is God’s act, by the Spirit, connected to the believer’s inheritance and the day of redemption. It is not presented as a temporary seal that Christ may fail to bring to completion.
The issue is still being shifted away from what the text actually says.Rather, I am pandering down to a conflicted OP.
That's correct, but it remains a non sequitur i.e. it does not address apostasy.
We're going for the definition of the word "seal," not trying to win an argument (think OP).
The issue is not at Christ's end (as you've described in length), but at the believer's end who retains free will...
The gist still revolves around the scriptural definition of "seal."The text does not say sealed until the believer later uses free will to break the seal. It says sealed unto the day of redemption.
That is not the question, as per above.The question is whether God’s sealing by the Spirit can fail before the day of redemption.
Again, they were not believers, so an analogy to believers apostatizing (or not apostatizing) cannot be made.And 1 John 2:19 absolutely does address apostasy in the sense of visible departure from the faith. John says their departure revealed they were “not of us.” He does not say they were truly regenerate, sealed by the Spirit, born of God, and then became unborn. He says, “if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us.”
Again, the gist revolves around the scriptural definition of "seal" and not around God's end of his promise.The burden is on you to show where Scripture says a believer sealed by the Holy Spirit unto the day of redemption can become unsealed before that day. Ephesians 1 and 4 do not say that.
Nor should it be. A seal is not salvation. This is why, for example, we're not to grieve the Holy Spirit of God, by whom we were sealed for the day of redemption. The seal of the HS is a gracious gift of God, whereby he demonstrates the authenticity of the believer’s relationship with him and his authority, ownership, and commitment to his people. The Holy Spirit provides the inward assurance that they belong to God as children. It's proof to you and to others. This is ALL AT GOD'S END - not ours.So the burden is not on me to prove God’s seal holds.
I've listed one.To become UNsealed equates to become UNsaved.
If we are saved & sealed by the Gospel (1 Cor 15:1-4, Eph 1:13) taught to Paul by Christ (Gal 1:11-12) then I ask those who believe we can become UNsealed/UNsaved to list the verses where Christ through Paul teaches that.
Yes sir.Rather, I am pandering down to a conflicted OP.
That's correct, but it remains a non sequitur i.e. it does not address apostasy.
We're going for the definition of the word "seal," not trying to win an argument (think OP).
The issue is not at Christ's end (as you've described in length), but at the believer's end who retains free will...
The issue is still being shifted away from what the text actually says.
Ephesians 1:13-14 says believers are “sealed with that holy Spirit of promise, which is the earnest of our inheritance until the redemption of the purchased possession.” Ephesians 4:30 says, “grieve not the holy Spirit of God, whereby ye are sealed unto the day of redemption.” The text does not say sealed until the believer later uses free will to break the seal. It says sealed unto the day of redemption.
Bringing in “free will” does not answer the passage. It adds a condition the verse does not give. The question is not whether believers still make real choices. The question is whether God’s sealing by the Spirit can fail
before the day of redemption. Ephesians does not teach that.
And 1 John 2:19 absolutely does address apostasy in the sense of visible departure from the faith. John says their departure revealed they were “not of us.” He does not say they were truly regenerate, sealed by the Spirit, born of God, and then became unborn. He says, “if they had been of us, they would no doubt have continued with us.”
Let's stick to Colossians.So the burden is not on me to prove God’s seal holds. The text already says that. The burden is on you to show where Scripture says a believer sealed by the Holy Spirit unto the day of redemption can become unsealed before that day. Ephesians 1 and 4 do not say that.
There are many wrong ideas about God.This is SO TRUE and CORRECT Gray Joy!
If one thinks "'Yah-uh-"Vay" doesn't "Chastise (Correct)" one HIS own?
Well?.....They'd be WRONG!
And?............In denial of the "Power OF GOD" in HIS correcting/s!
Col 1:22-23I've listed one.
No reply from you.
Wonder why?
What happens when there are two opposing statements in the NT?
Could it be that one of them is WRONG!!
Right.
It can't be wrong.
They both have to be right.
So,,,let's see your solution to this problem.
Or do you make believe the other verses don't exist?
Here is the one verse I posted:
Colossians 1:22-23
, 22yet He has now reconciled you in His fleshly body through death, in order to present you before Him holy and blameless and beyond reproach—
23if indeed you continue in the faith firmly established and steadfast,
I had also posted some questions for you.
Won't bother to repeat them since you probably won't have a reply for this post either.
Sounds like we have to continue in the faith...that's a BIG IF there.
but YOU say we're sealed.
Written by the SAME PERSON.
Problem.
There are 27 appearances of the word "seal", yet the OP would limit us to just two verses in Ephesians. Regardless, the question initially foisted is easy enough to answer.If sealed with the HS, how does one become UNsealed ?
The 1 Timothy 4 verse does not say Jesus will remove his spirit from them.From the OP:
There are 27 appearances of the word "seal", yet the OP would limit us to just two verses in Ephesians. Regardless, the question initially foisted is easy enough to answer.
David, when Nathan the prophet came unto him, after he had gone in to Bathsheba, earnestly prayed:
"Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions. Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me." (Psa. 51:1, 11).
He prays for the continuance of God’s good will towards him and the progress of his good work in him. He does not deprecate the temporal judgments which God by Nathan had threatened to bring upon him. He knew he had by his sin grieved the Spirit and provoked him to withdraw, and that because he also was flesh God might justly have said that his Spirit should no more strive with him nor work upon him (ala "And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man..." (Gen. 6:3)).
"But the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and an evil spirit from the LORD troubled him." (1 Sam. 16:14).
We are undone if God takes his Holy Spirit from us. Saul was a sad instance of this when the Spirit of the Lord had departed from him. David knew it, and therefore begged the Lord to take not the Holy Spirit from himself.
[From the Lord to Nathan:] "But my mercy shall not depart away from [David], as I took it from Saul, whom I put away before thee.' (2 Sam. 7:15).
The Holy Spirit seal is not a magical star wars tractor beam. We must remain diligent to keep our end of the deal. If one does not practice righteousness, one can fall away.
"Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith..." (1 Tim. 4:1).
Hey Doc, your post does not show who you were responding to.From the OP:
There are 27 appearances of the word "seal", yet the OP would limit us to just two verses in Ephesians. Regardless, the question initially foisted is easy enough to answer.
David, when Nathan the prophet came unto him, after he had gone in to Bathsheba, earnestly prayed:
"Have mercy upon me, O God, according to thy lovingkindness: according unto the multitude of thy tender mercies blot out my transgressions. Cast me not away from thy presence; and take not thy holy spirit from me." (Psa. 51:1, 11).
He prays for the continuance of God’s good will towards him and the progress of his good work in him. He does not deprecate the temporal judgments which God by Nathan had threatened to bring upon him. He knew he had by his sin grieved the Spirit and provoked him to withdraw, and that because he also was flesh God might justly have said that his Spirit should no more strive with him nor work upon him (ala "And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man..." (Gen. 6:3)).
"But the Spirit of the LORD departed from Saul, and an evil spirit from the LORD troubled him." (1 Sam. 16:14).
We are undone if God takes his Holy Spirit from us. Saul was a sad instance of this when the Spirit of the Lord had departed from him. David knew it, and therefore begged the Lord to take not the Holy Spirit from himself.
[From the Lord to Nathan:] "But my mercy shall not depart away from [David], as I took it from Saul, whom I put away before thee.' (2 Sam. 7:15).
The Holy Spirit seal is not a magical star wars tractor beam. We must remain diligent to keep our end of the deal. If one does not practice righteousness, one can fall away.
"Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith..." (1 Tim. 4:1).
I did not infer that it does. Perhaps you misunderstood. Rather, my exact quote was:The 1 Timothy 4 verse does not say Jesus will remove his spirit from them.
From the first sentence through to the second, "one can fall away" = "some shall depart from the faith."If one does not practice righteousness, one can fall away.
"Now the Spirit speaketh expressly, that in the latter times some shall depart from the faith..." (1 Tim. 4:1).