When Jesus walked amongst men, Jesus spoke to men in the language of them living in Israel at that time. From what I have read from a google search, the language was Aramaic.
In Daniel 8, 11, and 12, is A4E meant? Or is a future anti-christ meant?
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Earburner
Well-Known Member
And that is fine for whatever it may be. Today, we all translate the Aramaic language into languages that are equal to Aramaic.
Therefore, the words of Aramaic [and Hebrew] are not more holy than any other human language.
So then, we can conclude that Jesus [God the Son] spoke the "thoughts and ways" of God the Father to us in OUR human language of Aramaic.
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Yes.
John 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
Earburner
Well-Known Member
Yes, the words of Jesus are spirit and are not of human origin. Agreed!
So then, as it is with God and HIS OWN understanding, of that which He would have us to know, there is only ONE spiritual truth that is to be understood in each of the topics and/or subjects of Jesus' words.
The same principal applies to ALL the prophecies of God.
By the foreknowledge of God, each of His prophecies will only describe ONE truth that is to be manifested to take place in the realm of this world.
"There can always be more than one lie, but there can never be more than one truth."- Earburner
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