My question comes directly from scripture.
And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:
God was manifested in the flesh,
Justified in the Spirit,
Seen by angels,
Preached among the Gentiles,
Believed on in the world,
Received up in glory.
1 Timothy 3:16
- God was manifested in the flesh
Do you believe God was manifested in the flesh?
JLB, if I haven't warned you before, I will now. Have you truly examined every word of 1 Timothy 3:16 for its genuine meaning and within its context? For instance, the key to 1 Timothy 3:16 lies in part a. In your translation, you have "And without controversy great is the mystery of godliness:..."
So let's consider that.
There has been a significant mystery surrounding 'godliness.' Godliness here does not refer to a specific person but rather to a behavioral quality or characteristic of a person in relation to God, the Father.
This term comes from the Greek transliterated word "eusebeia." The English word 'godliness' doesn't fully capture its meaning, which is why some translations use terms like genuine pity, true reverence, or even holiness to describe 'eusebeia.'
The context of 1 Timothy 3:16 emphasizes that true eusebeia is based on a living, experiential relationship with or towards God, not just ritualistic or superficial behavior. Therefore, while "godliness" is a common translation, it may not fully reflect the original Greek focus on reverent awe and proper worship, especially when contrasted with empty religious practices.
As I mentioned earlier, the writing style here is poetic, moving line by line to describe the person of God. It clearly portrays a person who was seen and revealed as a human being possessing this true mysterious form of godliness, piety, and a genuine experiential relationship WITH GOD, rather than being God himself.
Besides being a man revealed on earth as a true human being, this man was also seen by angels. Since God constantly sees his angels, this would not be newsworthy, and it would not make sense to claim that this man was also God.
Furthermore, it says he was received up in glory—not God, as imagining that would be quite strange.
I will pause at "justified by the spirit." If this were truly God, why would God need to be justified by his own spirit? That would be illogical. The SON of God was surely justified by his Father's spirit.
Do you see why those who forged your beliefs tried unsuccessfully to portray God as a non-scriptural incarnate man and, in doing so, ended up undermining and nullifying the entire verse with nonsense?
Now, if you asked me whether God was manifested in the flesh outside the context of 1 Timothy 3:16, my answer would definitely be yes.
And why? Because God's Spirit, the Father's spirit, dwelled in the man Yeshua, the Son of God, at his anointing. This also addresses an important aspect of the mystery of godliness. God was literally present in his Son. But that does not make his Son God either. Like those unsuccessful forgers, you also do not believe that Yeshua's divine anointing by his Father was more than a sign and a blessing of pleasure and gladness. It meant there was an actual transformation within Yeshua—Emmanuel, literally God with us—in his Son!
I believe this is what 1 Timothy 3:16 intended, highlighting the mystery surrounding piety and true reverence. It was very difficult for people to understand and believe, as you and many others today do, that the Son of God possessed these godlike qualities as a real human man walking the earth, performing miracles, forgiving sins, and so forth. His Father was actively orchestrating and accomplishing all of this in real time with and through his Son.
So now, when you post the same query again, of "Do you believe God was manifested in the flesh?," in view of my explanation here, do you understand you cannot get a true genuine response without knowing the context it's framed in and its true meaning, and also your honest intent?
Hope this helps...