He preaches and writes to IsraelLet us examine this more closely.
Where in Peter's writings does he exclude Blood Washed Gentile believers?
Even in Acts 10 when the Gentiles responded to his preaching they were astonished
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He preaches and writes to IsraelLet us examine this more closely.
Where in Peter's writings does he exclude Blood Washed Gentile believers?
Peter recieved the REVELATION that the Gentiles were included in the new covenant.He preaches and writes to Israel
Even in Acts 10 when the Gentiles responded to his preaching they were astonished
YEP = BEFORE the FLOODJesus said "before the flood, one taken, one left"
BEFORE THE FLOOD.
JESUS said BEFORE THE FLOOD BE READY.
JESUS SAID ONE TAKEN ONE LEFT. Before the flood
Ahem..... 50% of that group taken
ALL postribs are forced to ascribe that group of those taken to the world's population.
I just shake my head at them trying to make the planet half saved and half righteous.
How can you do that to the bible???????
It is devastating to what you believe.
I just blew your theory into orbit and all postribs are unaware of what I just did.
AGREEHe preaches and writes to Israel
Even in Acts 10 when the Gentiles responded to his preaching they were astonished
Peter wrote 2 lettersAGREE
Is Peter the author of Scripture?
Are the two letters of Peter from himself only or did the Holy Spirit move in Peter to write what he wrote???Peter wrote 2 letters
We already established this.....the SpiritAre the two letters of Peter from himself only or did the Holy Spirit move in Peter to write what he wrote???
Therefore 1 & 2nd Peter does not belong to Peter, nor is it limited to those he wrote to, neither is it 'past tense' scriptural truth.We already established this.....the Spirit
IT dont . the same gospel peter preached on the day of pentecostLet us examine this more closely.
Where in Peter's writings does he exclude Blood Washed Gentile believers?
All scripture is for our learning but you cant say it applies to allTherefore 1 & 2nd Peter does not belong to Peter, nor is it limited to those he wrote to, neither is it 'past tense' scriptural truth.
Even when writing his letter to the churchTherefore 1 & 2nd Peter does not belong to Peter, nor is it limited to those he wrote to, neither is it 'past tense' scriptural truth.
Where does it state that the Holy Spirit was only speaking thru Peter to only those Jews at that time.All scripture is for our learning but you cant say it applies to all
Peter was moved to write 1 and 2 Peter by the Spirit to benefit Israel in the tribulation
Its not as simple as we want not everything is all spelled outWhere does it state that the Holy Spirit was only speaking thru Peter to only those Jews at that time.
No one is denying to whom Peter was writing to = except yourself, when you limit the Holy Spirit who is the Author of Peter's words.Its not as simple as we want not everything is all spelled out
That it was directed to Israel during the tribulation can be determined by context and comparing to other scripture
[1Pe 1:5 KJV] 5 Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.Where does it state that the Holy Spirit was only speaking thru Peter to only those Jews at that time.
They will be raised to enter the millennial kingdom on earthThe origional group of saints whom Peter wrote have all died as well.
Who exactly is waiting for this salvation?[1Pe 1:5 KJV] 5 Who are kept by the power of God through faith unto salvation ready to be revealed in the last time.
The last time is the end of the tribulation when Christ brings salvation to Israel
Only them and not us gentiles who believe the Gospel?They will be raised to enter the millennial kingdom on earth
the earthbound nation is just one group awaiting Salvation for they have not yet been restored by God = read Romans chapters 9 thru 11Israel
The old testament saints will be raised to enter the kingdomOnly them and not us gentiles who believe the Gospel?